Non-Traditional Pets Quiz Questions

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Last updated 7:36 PM on 5/5/26
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100 Terms

1
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Infectious bronchitis:

a) is caused by a paramyxovirus.

b) spreads slowly because it is not highly contagious.

c) is more likely to spread in large flocks in crowded housing.

d) is associated with pharyngeal plaques and nasal discharge

c) is more likely to spread in large flocks in crowded housing.

2
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Which of the following is a desirable component of housing for caged birds?

a) The cage is away from the center of human activity in the home, such as the kitchen.

b) Bars must be narrow enough that the bird cannot stick its head through and get caught.

c) The floor of the cage should be lined with a disposable substance and cleaned every 7-10 days.

d) Large birds should be given enrichment, such as toys made for budgerigars.

b) Bars must be narrow enough that the bird cannot stick its head through and get caught.

3
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Infectious coryza:

a) is associated with pale color of wattles due to anemia.

b) is best treated with fenbendazole in the food and water.

c) is associated with stargazing.

d) is best controlled by stocking birds from disease-free facilities

d) is best controlled by stocking birds from disease-free facilities

4
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A clutch of eggs in adult laying hens:

a) consists of 3-8 eggs.

b) is laid every 21 days.

c) only can be laid if eggs are fertilized.

d) is stored in the cloaca and all laid at one time.

a) consists of 3-8 eggs.

5
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Enzymatic digestion in chickens:

a) takes place solely in the proventriculus.

b) occurs after physical breakdown of food in the crop.

c) is associated with the site of nutrient absorption.

d) is associated with the site of breakdown of dietary fiber

c) is associated with the site of nutrient absorption.

6
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T/ F Chickens have a diaphragm.

False

7
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T/F All species of birds have a unilateral reproductive tract, like the chicken.

False

8
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T/F The wattle is the variably shaped fleshy structure on top of a chicken's head

False

9
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T/F Chickens have lungs

True

10
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T/F Laying chickens need scratch grains as at least 10% of their total diet.

False

11
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T/F Egg laying is not associated with environmental cues

False

12
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Which of the following is a zoonotic concern?

a) Psittacosis in frogs

b) Polyomavirus in snakes

c) Salmonella sp in turtles

d) Giardia sp in fish

c) Salmonella sp in turtles

13
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Match the correct species to its unique anatomy.

a) Amphibians: scaly skin to conserve moisture

b) Snakes: movable glottis to permit breathing while eating

c) Turtles: spectacle scales to protect the eyes

d) Reptiles: a 2-chambered heart with incomplete septa

b) Snakes: movable glottis to permit breathing while eating

14
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Which of the following statements regarding fish anatomy is CORRECT?

a) All fish have paired caudal fins.

b) The lateral line permits fish to sense changes in water pressure.

c) Carnivorous fish have a longer gastrointestinal tract than herbivorous fish.

d) The swim bladder is the caudal portion of the single large kidney.

b) The lateral line permits fish to sense changes in water pressure.

15
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Ectotherms:

a) require an external source of heat.

b) require vitamin C in their food.

c) cannot tolerate direct sunlight.

d) live primarily in desert habitats.

a) require an external source of heat.

16
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Regarding optimal creation and maintenance of a fish tank, which of the following statements is CORRECT?

a) Fish should be added gradually and the water quality regularly tested to minimize fish mortality.

b) Live plants in the tank control growth of algae by competing with algae for oxygen.

c) Filtration is only required until testing verifies stabilization of oxygen content and concentration of wastes in the tank.

d) Smaller tanks are preferred to larger tanks because it is easier to maintain good water quality in smaller tanks.

a) Fish should be added gradually and the water quality regularly tested to minimize fish mortality.

17
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T/F Amphibians live as larvae in water and as adults may live in water or on land.

True

18
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T/F Misting is provision of moisture in an enclosure to mimic rainfall.

True

19
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T/F UVB lighting should be available for amphibians and reptiles to promote vitamin D synthesis.

True

20
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T/F Fish most commonly maintained in home tanks are saltwater tropical fish

False

21
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T/F Attention must be paid to the mix of species in a fish tank as some fish eat other fish

True

22
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Which of the following species have open-rooted molars, predisposing them to dental disease?

a) Mice and guinea pigs

b) Guinea pigs and rats

c) Rats and chinchillas

d) Chinchillas and guinea pigs

d) Chinchillas and guinea pigs

23
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Suitable bedding for mice and rats includes:

a) Cedar shavings

b) Ground corncobs

c) Pine shavings

d) Pellets with 14% protein

b) Ground corncobs

24
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Match the species with the normal behavior.

a) Hamsters: nocturnal and social

b) Gerbils: nocturnal and solitary

c) Guinea pigs: variable activity and social

d) Rats: variable activity and solitar

c) Guinea pigs: variable activity and social

25
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The following species are illegal to own in California.

a) Mice and hamsters

b) Hamsters and gerbils

c) Gerbils and guinea pigs

d) Guinea pigs and chinchillas

b) Hamsters and gerbils

26
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Which of the following is NOT an anatomical feature of hamsters?

a) Long stiff whiskers

b) Cheek pouches

c) Flank sebaceous glands

d) Multiple nipples in females

a) Long stiff whiskers

27
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Estivation is:

a) a sleep-like state induced by increased environmental temperature.

b) packing of food and bedding into the cheek pouches.

c) sexual excitation evidenced by matting over the sebaceous glands.

d) changes in behavior induced by changes in daylength.

a) a sleep-like state induced by increased environmental temperature.

28
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Elective ovariohysterectomy and castration are performed in:

a) Hamsters and guinea pigs

b) Guinea pigs and gerbils

c) Gerbils and chinchillas

d) Guinea pigs and chinchillas

d) Guinea pigs and chinchillas

29
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What is the best primary diet for adult guinea pigs?

a) Timothy hay

b) Alfalfa hay

c) Commercial pellets

d) Fresh fruit

a) Timothy hay

30
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T/F A unique grooming behavior of chinchillas is dust bathing.

True

31
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T/F In hamsters, males have a longer anogenital distance than females.

True

32
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T/F Chinchillas and guinea pigs are susceptible to hyperthermia.

True

33
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T/F Brown rats have tails longer than their bodies.

False

34
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Hypersalivation in hedgehogs:

a) most commonly is due to eruption of adult teeth at 5-6 months of age.

b) is a defensive behavior seen when hedgehogs fight within their pack.

c) may be a normal behavior after exposure to a novel object.

d) is associated with emergence from hibernation or estivation

c) may be a normal behavior after exposure to a novel object.

35
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Housing for rabbits:

a) should have wide mesh flooring throughout to permit passage of feces.

b) must not be made of wood, to prevent gnawing and breaking of teeth.

c)cannot be outside in Minnesota, as rabbits tolerate heat better than cold.

d) should be tall enough for the rabbit to sit with its ears erect.

d) should be tall enough for the rabbit to sit with its ears erect.

36
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Which of the following statements regarding diet in ferrets is CORRECT?

a) Raisins are good low-fat snack for ferrets.

b) The primary diet should be low in protein and fat.

c) Jerky is a good high-protein snack for ferrets.

d) A high fiber diet is vital for gastric motility.

c) Jerky is a good high-protein snack for ferrets

37
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Which of the following statements about anatomy of sugar gliders is CORRECT?

a) The patagium is a furred fold from the wrist to the ankle on each side.

b) The medial toe on each front foot is adapted for climbing.

c) Both the female and male have scent glands on the top of their heads.

d) The pouch of the female is readily visible as a large fold of skin.

a) The patagium is a furred fold from the wrist to the ankle on each side.

38
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Which of the following correctly matches species with age of females at sexual maturity?

a) Ferrets - 6-12 weeks

b) Rabbits - 4-8 weeks

c) Hedgehogs - 3-4 weeks

d) Sugar gliders - 3-4 months

d) Sugar gliders - 3-4 months

39
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Regarding hedgehog spines, which of the following statements is CORRECT?

a) A given hedgehog will have 5000-7000 spines covering its back, sides and crown of the head.

b) Hedgehogs are born without spines; membranous spines gradually emerge from 5-6 months of age.

c) Spines are solid cylinders of keratin with tapered ends.

d) Spines are used for defense and for thermoregulation due to arteriovenous shunting.

a) A given hedgehog will have 5000-7000 spines covering its back, sides and crown of the head.

40
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Which of the following statements regarding sugar glider husbandry is INCORRECT?

a) Their cage needs to be large enough to allow them to explore, climb, exercise, and glide.

b) Sugar gliders should have conifer branches in their cage to imitate a natural environment.

c) Cages should include a nest box, a cloth pouch, and safe bedding.

d) Sugar gliders in the wild are social and so readily live in groups.

b) Sugar gliders should have conifer branches in their cage to imitate a natural environment.

41
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T/F Rabbits control their body temperature by using their ears for thermoregulation.

True

42
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T/F Reported causes of fur chewing in rabbits include overstimulation, a low fiber diet, and nutritional deficiencies.

False

43
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T/F Male ferrets are hobs; female ferrets are jills.

True

44
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T/F The body type of rabbit most common in production and meat animals is the compact body type

False

45
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T/F Ferrets prefer a litterbox in the corner of their cage, away from areas where they sleep and eat.

True

46
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Which of the following is NOT a cause of feather picking in caged birds?

a) allergies

b) liver disease

c) trauma

d) lipomas

d) lipomas

47
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You see ornamental koi with areas of hemorrhage and what look like tiny white worms coming from beneath the scales. What is the preferred treatment?

a) Remove the worms under sedation.

b) Increase water temperature and decrease light intensity in the tank.

c) Change 50% of the water in the tank and decrease water pH.

d) Treat tank with copper sulfate

a) Remove the worms under sedation.

48
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Which of the following is NOT a common cause of egg binding in caged birds?

a) obesity

b) liver disease

c) hypocalcemia

d) abnormal egg formation

b) liver disease

49
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Treatment of egg binding in caged birds includes:

a) increasing environmental humidity.

b)decreasing environmental temperature.

c) surgical removal of the cloaca.

d) treatment with drugs that decrease uterine contractility.

a) increasing environmental humidity.

50
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Which of the following disorders of fish is NOT associated with poor water quality?

a) Ammonia toxicity

b) Anchorworm

c) Dropsy

d) Fin rot

b) Anchorworm

51
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Sinusitis in caged birds:

a) may be associated with increased environmental humidity.

b) is suspected in birds with exophthalmos and yawning.

c) cannot be diagnosed with culture of nasal flushes.

d) is treated with antibiotics and change to an all-seed diet.

b) is suspected in birds with exophthalmos and yawning.

52
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Snuffles in rabbits is:

a) so named because it is associated with enhanced sense of smell.

b) commonly associated with infection with Pasteurella multocida.

c) evidenced by epiphora, dyspnea, and vomiting of clear to bloody fluid.

d) best treated with nebulization and a short course of antibiotics.

b) commonly associated with infection with Pasteurella multocida.

53
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T/F Normal droppings in caged birds include a fecal component with an overlying renal component; birds with enteritis may have no obvious renal component.

False

54
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T/F Salpingectomy is puncture and collapse of an egg retained within the oviduct.

False

55
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T/F Treatment of otoascariasis (ear mites) in rabbits requires treatment of the rabbit and cleaning of the rabbit's hutch.

True

56
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T/F Psittacine birds with no access to hard perches or cuttlebones may develop deformity of the upper beak.

True

57
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T/F Hypovitaminosis A is associated with neurologic signs and sinusitis in caged birds.

True

58
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T/F You see a New Zealand White rabbit doe for a mass on her shoulder. It is a nodule that contains a caseous material that cannot be readily expressed. The best treatment for this is flushing of the area with antiseptic and antibiotics, to help it drain

False

59
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T/F For behavioral feather picking in caged birds, use of a noxious agent such as bitter apple is recommended.

False

60
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T/F Several parasitic diseases of fish require treatment of the fish and treatment of the tank because the parasite life cycle includes parasitic form on or in both

True

61
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Which of the following statements regarding association of vitamin D with metabolic bone disease is CORRECT?

a) Lack of exposure to UVB light increases the body's production of vitamin D.

b) Vitamin D decreases absorption of calcium across the gastrointestinal tract.

c) Lizards with inadequate exposure to UVB light may have difficulty moving.

d) Vitamin D is a water soluble vitamin and is readily stored in body fat

c) Lizards with inadequate exposure to UVB light may have difficulty moving.

62
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Bumblefoot (pododermatitis) in guinea pigs may be associated with all of the following EXCEPT:

a) obesity

b) wire-bottomed or poorly cleaned cage floors

c) lameness or reluctance to move

d) vitamin C deficiency

d) vitamin C deficiency

63
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Egg binding in lizards:

a) may be associated with excessive concentration of calcium in the diet.

b) is less common in obese lizards.

c) may be associated with cloacal discharge or prolapse.

d) is best treated with exploratory celiotomy and lavage of the coelem

c) may be associated with cloacal discharge or prolapse.

64
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Dyspnea and incoordination in turtles:

a) may occur secondary to aural abscesses.

b) may be due to bacterial or fungal infections.

c) cannot be assessed using radiography.

d) require surgical drainage of infected areas.

b) may be due to bacterial or fungal infections.

65
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Dental disease in guinea pigs:

a) can involve the incisors or the molars, both of which are open-rooted.

b) is most common in young guinea pigs.

c) can easily be diagnosed by radiography without sedation.

d) is best treated by clipping of overgrown teeth.

a) can involve the incisors or the molars, both of which are open-rooted.

66
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Flashing in fish is:

a) an illegal activity as in other species.

b) a behavior associated with parasitic disease.

c) a name for gasping at the water surface for air.

d) another term for dropsy.

b) a behavior associated with parasitic disease.

67
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Lymphoma in hamsters:

a) may be associated with anemia and alopecia.

b) may develop in the liver and bone.

c) is more commonly malignant than benign.

d) is best treated with radiation therapy.

a) may be associated with anemia and alopecia.

68
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T/F A young lady consults you regarding her four French Lop rabbits, which recently developed crusts in the ear canals and are scratching the hair away on their ears. The most likely diagnosis with this description is otoascariasis.

True

69
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T/F You are presented with a 10-month-old rabbit who has abruptly stopped eating. She is fed a pelleted diet and has access to fresh water. The owner thinks the rabbit likely has neoplasia in her gastrointestinal tract because the rabbit is not passing any fecal material. The more likely diagnosis is gastrointestinal stasis due to improper diet.

True

70
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T/F Common tumors in hamsters include lymphoma and adrenal tumors and are more commonly benign than malignant.

True

71
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T/F As in rabbits, abscesses in hamsters are associated with a caseous discharge that is not easily drained with lancing.

False

72
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T/F You see a 4-week-old hamster for clinical examination. The animal has a wet tail, yellow diarrhea, and a prolapsed rectum. You should give this animal a good prognosis.

False

73
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T/F Skin mites in lizards must be diagnosed by assessment of skin scrapings under the light microscope.

False

74
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T/F A guinea pig with ocular or nasal discharge, sneezing, and dyspnea most likely has bacterial pneumonia.

True

75
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T/F You see a pet guinea pig for joint swelling. The animal is fed pelleted food and alfalfa hay. The most likely diagnosis for this condition is hypocalcemia and nutritional secondary hyperparathyroidism.

False

76
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T/F Neoplasia is uncommon in caged birds; those that do occur are commonly treated with chemotherapy

False

77
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Adrenal disease in ferrets:

a) Answer is usually due to hyperactivity of the gland secondary to hyperplasia or neoplasia.

b) rarely occurs in ferrets over 3 years of age.

c)is associated clinically in male ferrets with urethral obstruction secondary to urinary stones.

d) can only be treated surgically.

a) Answer is usually due to hyperactivity of the gland secondary to hyperplasia or neoplasia.

78
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Vitamin C deficiency in guinea pigs:

a) is also called rickets.

b) may occur because commercial guinea pig diets may be deficient in vitamin C.

c) is associated clinically with neurologic and cardiac disease.

d) is treated by provision of broad-spectrum UV light in the cage.

b) may occur because commercial guinea pig diets may be deficient in vitamin C.

79
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Regarding neoplasia in ferrets, which of the following statements is CORRECT?

a) Insulinoma is a tumor of the pancreas associated with hyperglycemia and neurologic signs.

b) Lymphoma is a tumor of the immune system and is best treated with surgery and chemotherapy.

c) Adrenal adenoma or adenocarcinoma is associated with decreased production of sex steroids and infertility.

d) Neoplasia is uncommon in pet ferrets in the United States.

b) Lymphoma is a tumor of the immune system and is best treated with surgery and chemotherapy.

80
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A female or male rat with an egg-shaped mass in the mammary area:

a) will show signs of severe secondary illness.

b) is best treated medically.

c) most likely has mammary adenocarcinoma.

d) is unlikely to develop another mass if this one is treated.

c) most likely has mammary adenocarcinoma.

81
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Ringworm in hedgehogs:

a) may be associated with quill loss and facial crusting.

b) is more common in hedgehogs housed in arid environments.

c) is a bacterial infection also called dermatophytosis.

d) cannot be transmitted to humans.

a) may be associated with quill loss and facial crusting.

82
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Red-leg syndrome in amphibians:

a) is a synonym for nutritional secondary hyperparathyroidism.

b) is a bacterial infection associated with poor husbandry.

c) is best treated with exposure to UVB light to increase vitamin A.

d) has a low mortality rate in animals treated with antibiotics.

b) is a bacterial infection associated with poor husbandry.

83
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A gerbil with inflammation of the ventral abdominal scent gland:

a) most likely has a localized abscess.

b) most likely has neoplasia.

c) is best treated by lancing and antiseptic flush of the affected area.

d) is best treated with chemotherapy.

b) most likely has neoplasia.

84
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Regarding dust bathing in chinchillas, which statement is INCORRECT?

a) Dust bathing is required for normal maintenance of the coat.

b) If conjunctivitis develops in chinchillas, dust bathing is best prohibited for 2-3 weeks.

c) Dust bathing mimics hygiene of wild chinchillas in the Andes.

d) Abscesses filled with caseous discharge may develop after excessive dust bathing

d) Abscesses filled with caseous discharge may develop after excessive dust bathing

85
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Which of the following species develop abscesses with caseous discharge that requires surgical management instead of simple lancing and draining?

a) rabbits and hamsters

b) hamsters and gerbils

c) gerbils and guinea pigs

d) guinea pigs and rabbits

d) guinea pigs and rabbits

86
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Which of the following species do not commonly have overgrowth of continuously growing incisors?

a) rabbits

b) mice

c) rats

d) guinea pigs

b) mice

87
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Which of the following species may suffer from metabolic bone disease?

a) lizards and ferrets

b) ferrets and sugar gliders

c) sugar gliders and amphibians

d) amphibians and fish

c) sugar gliders and amphibians

88
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Which of the following diets is associated with night blindness in caged birds?

a) Complete pelleted diet

b) Complete fresh vegetable diet

c) Complete seed diet

d) Mixed diet of pellets and fresh fruit

c) Complete seed diet

89
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Which of the following disorders of fish is NOT bacterial in cause?

a) Dropsy

b) Fin rot

c) Swim bladder disease

d) Velvet

d) Velvet

90
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Regarding ileus in rabbits, which of the following statements is CORRECT?

a) This condition is due to overconsumption of roughage in the diet.

b) Clinical signs include lack of appetite, vomiting, and decreased production of feces.

c) Diagnosis is by physical examination; portions of the gastrointestinal tract will feel doughy or gas-filled.

d) Treatment requires surgical removal of ingesta and hair that has accumulated in the stomach.

c) Diagnosis is by physical examination; portions of the gastrointestinal tract will feel doughy or gas-filled.

91
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An owner calls and asks if they can stop by and pick up ear mite treatment for their rabbit. They say the ears look clean but that the rabbit is holding its head oddly. Which of the following statements provides the best information for the client?

a) Ear mite infestation in rabbits is associated with scratching of the ears and presence of a pale waxy aural discharge.

b) Encephalitozoon cuniculi is a microsporidian parasite that may cause neurologic signs in rabbits including torticollis (which may make the animal hold its head oddly).

c) You can easily test their rabbit for E. cuniculi using an antibody test; this is accurate for diagnosis of this disorder.

d) You cannot easily diagnose ear mites in rabbits because the mites are not visible, even with light microscopy.

b) Encephalitozoon cuniculi is a microsporidian parasite that may cause neurologic signs in rabbits including torticollis (which may make the animal hold its head oddly).

92
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Demodectic mange in hamsters:

a) is clinically apparent in all animals that are carrying the mites.

b) is associated with frantic scratching but no change in the hair coat.

c) may be diagnosed by skin scrapings examined under the light microscope.

d) requires treatment for the mite only as it rarely is associated with underlying conditions

c) may be diagnosed by skin scrapings examined under the light microscope.

93
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T/F A lizard that cannot properly close its mouth may be suffering from stomatitis or from metabolic bone disease.

True

94
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T/F Beak deformities in caged birds are best treated by significant trimming to permit the beak to grow back completely.

False

95
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T/F Neoplasia in gerbils is common with tumors most commonly developing in the ovaries and skin.

True

96
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T/F Neoplasia is uncommon in sugar gliders but when it occurs, it is usually in young sugar gliders.

False

97
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T/F Ear infections in turtles and tortoises form as internal abscesses because they have no external ear canal.

True

98
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T/F Respiratory disease in rats generally is caused by mycoplasma organisms and is not impacted by environmental factors.

False

99
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T/F Ecdysis in snakes occurs as new scales develop under old scales and are separated by infiltration of lymphatic fluid.

True

100
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T/F As in rats, pneumonia in mice is most often due to influenza.

False