CMS Final: Derm E2

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Last updated 3:58 PM on 12/9/24
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184 Terms

1
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which type of urticaria is IgE dependent?

acute (<6 weeks)

2
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which type of urticaria results from stroking/scratching skin?

dermographism

3
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which condition is a malar rash/butterfly rash associated with?

cutaneous lupus erythematosus

4
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how long does a butterfly rash last and what makes it worse?

lasts hours-weeks;
exacerbated by sun exposure

5
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does a butterfly rash include the nasolabial folds?

no they are spared

6
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what vascular manifestations are seen in cutaneous lupus erythematosus?

periungal erythema
livedo reticularis
raynauds
vasculitis

7
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what sign/sx is seen in ACUTE cutaneous lupus?

butterfly rash

8
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what sign/sx is seen in SUBACUTE cutaneous lupus?

small, erythematous, slightly scaly papules that evolve into psoriasiform plaques or annular plaques→seen on shoulders, forearms, neck and upper torso

<p>small, erythematous, slightly scaly papules that evolve into psoriasiform plaques or annular plaques→seen on shoulders, forearms, neck and upper torso</p>
9
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what is the most common type of chronic cutaneous lupus?

discoid

10
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what skin manifestation is seen in chronic cutaneous lupus?

discrete, erythematous, indurated plaques covered by a well-formed adherent scale that extends into dilated hair follicles → healed plaques leave depressed central scars, atrophy, telangiectasia, and hyper/hypopigmentation

11
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which form of lupus presents as painful indurated plaques or firm subcutaneous nodules?

lupus panniculitis (profundus)
→ upon resolution they are left with subcutaneous atrophy and scarring

12
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what is the first line of treatment for cutaneous lupus?

sunscreen + topical/intralesional/oral corticosteroids

13
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what treatment is used for refractory lupus?

antimalarials (-quin)

14
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what is a hallmark of scleroderma?

widespread vascular dysfunction and progressive fibrosis of skin and internal organs

15
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what are some clinical features of scleroderma?

edema, skin thickening/hardening, Raynaud's, painful ulcerations at DIP and PIP, sclerodactyly

16
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what is the first line of treatment for scleroderma?

methotrexate

17
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scleroderma, lupus, sjrogans, dermatomyositis, polymyocitis, hypothyroidism

rule out raynauds?? idk what she said about these dx in class

18
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what is a big risk factor for raynaud's?

smoking

19
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what are some scleroderma associated syndromes?

CREST!

C = calcinosis cutis
R = raynaud's
E = esophageal dysfunction
S = scerlodactyly
T = telangiectasia

20
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which subtype of raynaud's is due to underlying disease?

secondary

21
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what is defined as an exaggerated vascular response to cold temperature or emotional distress?

Raynaud's phenomenon

22
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what is the first line treatment for Raynaud's?

CCB (amlodipine or nifedipine)

2nd line = PDE5i

23
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what is the first line of treament for dermatomyositis?

hydroxychloroquine
2nd line = add methotrexate
for pruritis → topical steroids/calcineurin inhibitors

<p>hydroxychloroquine<br>2nd line = add methotrexate<br>for pruritis → topical steroids/calcineurin inhibitors</p>
24
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how does dermatomyositis commonly present?

progressive, symmetric, proximal muscle weakness and cutaneous findings

25
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what cutaneous findings are associated with dermatomyositis?

Gottron's papules (fingers), Heliotrope eruption (eyelids), Shawl sign (back)

26
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How is Behcet's diagnosed?

Recurrent Oral Ulceraction + 2 of following:
-recurrent apthae-like genital ulcers
-uveitis
-skin lesions
-+pathergy test

27
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what is the first line of treatment for Behcet's?

topical glucocorticoids for aphthous ulcers

systemic → prednisone

28
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what severe complication is associated with Behcet's?

ocular disease → uveitis → blindness

29
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which subtype of angioedema affects face/extremities, laryngeal edema, angioedema of bowel wall?

hereditary angioedema

30
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what is a pathognomonic finding for IgA vaculitis?

leukocytoclastic vasculitis in postcapillary venules with IgA deposition on bx

31
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what are risk factors for IgA vaculitis?

age 4-7 &
S. pyogenes infection

32
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which condition is defined as "systemic necrotizing vasculitis that typically affects medium-sized muscular arteries with additional involvement of small arteries"?

polyarteritis nodosa

<p>polyarteritis nodosa</p>
33
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what is a hallmark feature of neurofibromatosis?

cafe au lait spots

34
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which type of NF is most associated with complication of acoustic neuroma?

NF2 → associated with Schwannomatosis

35
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which condition is associated with cutaneous and mucosal erythema and edema with subsequent desquamation?

Kawasaki disease

36
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does Kawasaki disease include the palms and soles?

yes → erythema

37
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how is Kawasaki disease diagnosed?

presence of fever last 5+ days with no explanation PLUS 4/5 of the following:
1. bilateral bulbar conjunctival injection
2. oral mucous membrane changes (strawb tongue)
3. peripheral extremity changes
4. polymorphous rash
5. cervical LAD

38
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what is the treatment for Kawasaki disease?

IVIG and aspirin

39
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what is a complication of Kawasaki disease?

coronary artery aneurysm (was on exam)

40
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which subtype of sarcoidosis is associated with diffuse, violaceous, soft doughy infiltrations on the nose, cheeks or earlobes?

lupus pernio

41
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which subtype of sarcoidosis is associated with papules and translucent yellow/red with apple jelly appearance on diascopy?

papular

42
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what is seen on diascopy in sarcoidosis?

"apple jelly" semitranslucent yellowish/brown color

43
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what is a hallmark of sarcoidosis?

noncaseating granulomas

44
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what is the triad associated with granulomatosis with polyangiitis (GPA) (Wegners)?

1. necrotizing granuloma in upper resp tract and lungs
2. vasculitis involving both arteries and veins
3. glomerulitis

45
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which condition shows necrotizing vasculitis of small arteries/veins with intra or extravascular granuloma formation on histo?

GPA

46
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which drug is used for prevention of opportunistic infections in GPA?

bactrim

47
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what is the treatment for induction of GPA?

cyclophosphamide or Rituximab PLUS prednisone

48
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what is the treatment for maintenance of GPA?

methotrexate or Rituximab or azathioprine

49
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which autoimmune condition is characterized by chronic inflammatory subepidermal blistering?

bullous pemphigoid

50
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what is seen in the prodromal phase of bullous pemphigoid?

weeks/months of pruritic eczematous papular or urticaria-like skin lesions

51
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what is the initial therapy for bullous pemphigoid?

high potency topical steroid (clobetasol) OR oral glucocorticoids OR doxy

52
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which diagnosis should be suspected in a patient >60 y/o with blistering skin disease, desquamative gingivitis/mucositis, and unexplained pruritic urticarial plaques?

bullous pemphigoid

53
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which disease has a prodrome of fever, fatigue, malaise, arthralgias that may precede nodules 1-3 weeks?

erythema nodosum

54
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Where is erythema nodosum most commonly found?

shins

55
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where is a neurofibroma most commonly found?

trunk

56
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what is the diagnostic criteria for neurofibromatosis?

2 of the following:
- > 6 cafe au lait lesions >5mm prepuberty or 15> mm postpuberty
- multiple freckles in axillary+inguinal areas
- >2 neurofibromas or one plexiform neurofibroma
- bone legions
- bilateral optic nerve glioma
- >2 Lisch nodules
- 1st degree relative with NF1

57
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what drug is used to treat pruritis of neurofibromas?

gabapentin

58
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which inherited disorder is characterized by benign hamartomas of the brain, eyes, heart, lungs, liver, kidneys, and skin?

tuberous sclerosis

59
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which blood test should always be checked in patients with xanthomas?

lipid panel

60
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what is the most common xanthoma?

Xanthelasma

61
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what is the cause of scurvy?

Vitamin C deficiency

62
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what are common clinical features of scurvy?

petechiae, extensive ecchymoses, bleeding gums, loss of teeth, hemorrhage into long bones and intracerebral hemorrhage (Severe)

63
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what disease of zinc deficiency is seen in infants?

Acrodermatitis Enteropathica → d/t genetic disorder of zinc absorption

64
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what is the triad of Acrodermatitis Enteropathica?

1. erythematous, dry, scaly plaques of face/anogenital area
2. alopecia
3. diarrhea

65
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which disease is caused by Niacin deficiency?

Pellagra

66
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what is a chemically induced skin irritation that is exacerbated by direct sunlight?

phototoxicity

67
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what is an abnormal cutaneous response that occurs after exposure to UV or visible light?

photosensitivity

68
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how long does UVA damage take to develop?

4-16 hours, fades in 48-72 hrs

69
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how long does UVB damage take to develop?

6-24 hours, fades in 72-120 hrs (more harmful)

70
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what is the criteria to refer to burn center?

- suspected inhalation injury
- moderate-severe burns
- circumferential partial or full thickness burns
- burns to hands, feet, face, and perineum
- chemical burns
- carbon monoxide poisoning
- inadequate family support of abuse
- severe co-morbidities (COPD, CAD, DM, renal insuff)

71
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what is a delayed-type hypersensitivity reaction to an allergen whose antigenicity changes after exposure to UV?

photoallergic

72
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what is chronic photodamage also known as?

Dermatoheliosis (photoaging)

73
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what is characterized by wrinkled, leathery, premature aged, cigarette-paper skin?

dermatoheliosis

74
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what is characterized by circumscribed flat, brown macules with uniform color in a scattered distribution?

solar lentigo

75
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what deadly condition does solar lentigo mimic?

melanoma (solar lentigo is UNIFORM in color)

76
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what is appears as an exaggerated sunburn secondary to phototoxic agent that has been applied/ingested?

phototoxic dermatitis

77
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which fitzpatrick type is most affected by phototoxic dermatitis?

ALL

78
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what is the most common idiopathic photodermatosis?

polymorphous light eruption (PMLE)

79
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what is the cause of PMLE?

genetic susceptibility or delayed-type hypersensitivity

80
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what is skin hardening associated with?

PMLE → treated with PUVA

81
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what type of hypersensitivity is solar urticaria?

immediate type 1 → sunlight induced wheals

82
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what is the etiology of porphyria cutanea tarda?

deficiency of uroporphyrinogen decarboxylase enzyme (UROD)

83
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which disease is characterized by fragile skin, superficial erosions, chronic scarring and alopecia?

porphyria cutanea tarda (vampire disease) (liver skin condition)

84
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which condition shows pink fluorescence under a woods lamp?

porphyria cutanea tarda (vampire disease)****

85
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How are burns classified?

classified according to their depth

86
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which degree of burn involves destruction of the epidermis and varying depths of dermis?

2nd → partial thickness

87
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which degree of burn involves only the epidermis?

1st → superficial

88
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which degree of burn involves destruction of epidermis, dermis, and subq tissue?

3rd → full thickness

89
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which degree of burn involves subq tissue, muscle, fascia, and bone?

4th → full thickness and can involve muscle and/or bone

90
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which degree of burns can destroy nerve endings?

3rd and 4th

91
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what is the Lund-Browder Chart?

A detailed version of the rule of nines chart that takes into consideration the changes in body surface area brought on by growth. → most accurate

<p>A detailed version of the rule of nines chart that takes into consideration the changes in body surface area brought on by growth. → most accurate</p>
92
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What is the rule of nines used for?

divides the body into 11 sections each accounting for 9%; mainly used to determine the amount of fluids lost in a burn → fastest

<p>divides the body into 11 sections each accounting for 9%; mainly used to determine the amount of fluids lost in a burn → fastest</p>
93
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what is the treatment for superficial burns?

topical mupirocin or bacitracin

94
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what is the treatment for partial thickness burns?

silvadene

95
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which type of burn appears waxy, white, and leathery gray?

3rd degree

96
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what burn injuries are most common in young children?

scald injuries → evaluate for child abuse

97
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what is the leading cause of death with burns?

systemic infection

98
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Burn Center Referral Criteria

on exam!

<p>on exam!</p>
99
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which skin condition starts with a "Herald patch"?

pityriasis Rosea → single round or oval, sharply demarcated lesion on chest, neck or back

100
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which condition is characterized by pink/hyperpigmented, scaly, oval, papulosquamous lesions?

pityriasis rosea

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