Rad Physics, Protection, Production & Biology Complete Reviewer

Which of the following best defines matter in physics?

A. Anything that has energy and can do work

B. Any substance that changes with gravity

C. Anything that occupies space and has mass

D. Any form that can be measured in joules

C.

A radiologic technologist weighs 70 kg on Earth. On the Moon, his weight decreases due to lower gravity. What happens to his mass?

A. It remains unchanged

B. It increases due to reduced pull

C. It becomes zero

D. It doubles

A.

Which unit is the correct SI measurement for energy in physics?

A. Watt (W)

B. Newton (N)

C. Kilogram (kg)

D. Joule (J)

D.

Which statement correctly distinguishes mass from weight?

A. Mass is dependent on gravity, weight is not

B. Mass is constant regardless of gravity, weight varies with gravity

C. Both mass and weight remain constant everywhere

D. Weight is constant, mass varies with location

B. Mass is constant regardless of gravity, weight varies with gravity

Matter is composed of atoms arranged in complex ways. Which of the following is the fundamental building block of matter?

A. Atoms and molecules

B. Energy particles

C. Molecules only

D. Gravitational fields

A.

Which transformation of matter does not alter its mass?

A. Solid to liquid

B. Liquid to gas

C. Gas to plasma

D. All of the above

D.

Which of the following is the most accurate definition of energy?

A. The ability to occupy space

B. The ability to resist gravity

C. The ability to measure mass

D. The ability to do work

D.

Which SI unit is not correctly paired with its physical quantity?

A. Weight - joule (J)

B. Mass - kilogram (kg)

C. Force - newton (N)

D. Energy - joule (J)

A.

Which of the following best describes potential energy?

A. Energy of motion

B. Energy due to position

C. Energy released by chemical reaction

D. Energy contained in the nucleus

B.

A moving car illustrates which type of energy?

A. Potential energy

B. Kinetic energy

C. Thermal energy

D. Nuclear energy

B.

Which type of energy is released during digestion of food?

A. Chemical energy

B. Nuclear energy

C. Thermal energy

D. Electrical energy

A.

Household electricity is an example of which energy form?

A. Electromagnetic energy

B. Thermal energy

C. Potential energy

D. Electrical energy

D.

Vibrating molecules at high temperature demonstrate which energy type?

A. Thermal energy

B. Nuclear energy

C. Electromagnetic energy

D. Chemical energy

A.

Which energy source is fundamental to nuclear power plants?

A. Nuclear energy

B. Chemical energy

C. Electrical energy

D. Potential energy

A.

X-rays used in diagnostic imaging belong to which category of energy?

A. Electrical energy

B. Electromagnetic energy

C. Nuclear energy

D. Thermal energy

B.

Which principle explains the interchangeability of matter and energy?

A. Newton’s First Law

B. Newton’s Second law

C. Law of Conservation of Matter

D. Einstein’s Theory of Relativity

D.

In radiology, electrical energy is converted into which form for imaging?

A. Electromagnetic energy (X-rays)

B. Nuclear energy (Gamma rays)

C. Thermal energy

D. Potential energy

A.

Which of the following pairs is correctly matched?

A. Potential energy - moving car

B. Chemical energy - dynamite explosion

C. Kinetic energy - rollercoaster at rest

D. Nuclear energy - vibrating molecules

B.

Which of the following best defines radiation?

A. Energy stored in chemical bonds

B. Energy confined within atomic nuclei

C. Energy measured only in joules

D. Energy emitted and transferred through space

D.

Ionizing radiation is distinguished from non-ionizing radiation because it can:

A. Vibrate molecules at high temperature

B. Reflect visible light

C. Remove an electron from an atom

D. Reflect visible light

C.

Which of the following is not an example of ionizing radiation?

A. X-rays

B. Ultraviolet light

C. Gamma rays

D. Radiowaves

D.

Ionization results in the formation of which pair?

A. Positive atom and negative electron

B. Alpha and beta particles

C. Proton and neutron

D. Visible light and sound wave

A.

Which of the following is classified as electromagnetic ionizing radiation?

A. Alpha particles

B. Gamma rays

C. Beta particles

D. Neutrons

B.

Particle-type ionizing radiation includes:

A. Ultraviolet light and visible light

B. Sound and radio waves

C. X-rays and gamma rays

D. Alpha and beta particles

D.

Which statement about alpha and beta particles is correct?

A. They are identical to gamma rays

B. They cannot cause ionization

C. They are forms of electromagnetic radiation

D. They are sometimes mistakenly called “rays”

D.

The average annual dose from natural environmental radiation is approximately:

A. 3 mSv

B. 320 mSv

C. 0.3 mSv

D. 30 mSv

A.

Cosmic rays originate primarily from:

A. Uranium deposits in the Earth

B. Potassium-40 metabolism

C. The Sun and stars

D. Radon gas decay

C.

The intensity of cosmic radiation increases with:

A. Proximity to uranium mines

B. Depth underground

C. Higher altitude and latitude

D. Lower altitude and latitude

C.

Terrestrial radiation is mainly due to:

A. Potassium-40 in human tissues

B. Alpha particles from radon gas

C. Cosmic rays from outer space

D. Deposits of uranium, thorium, and radionuclides in the Earth

D.

Which naturally occurring radionuclide is present in all humans?

A. Radon-222

B. Thorium-232

C. Uranium-238

D. Potassium-40 (40K)

D.

The largest single source of natural environmental radiation is:

A. Internally deposited radionuclides

B. Terrestrial deposits

C. Radon gas

D. Cosmic rays

C.

Radon gas primarily affects which organ system?

A. Digestive tract

B. Lungs

C. Kidneys

D. Skin

B.

Radon emits which type of particle during decay?

A. Alpha particles

B. Neutrons

C. Gamma rays

D. Beta particles

A.

Natural environmental radiation levels (~0.2 mGy/yr) are lowest in regions such as:

A. Himalayas

B. Gulf Coast

C. Andes Mountains

D. South pacific ocean

B.

The average annual dose from man-made radiation is approximately:

A. 0.5 mSv

B. 32 mSv

C. 320 mSv

D. 3.2 mSv

D.

The largest single source of man-made radiation exposure is:

A. Nuclear power generation

B. Consumer products

C. Airport surveillance systems

D. Diagnostic x-rays

D.

According to NCRP (2006), diagnostic x-rays contribute approximately how much annual dose?

A. 0.5 mSv

B. 1.0 mSv

C. 3.2 mSv

D. 6.7 mSv

C.

The increase in man-made radiation exposure from 0.5 mSv (1990) to 3.2 mSv (2006) is largely due to:

A. Expansion of nuclear power plants

B. Increased use of CT scans and fluoroscopy

C. Growth in consumer product usage

D. Higher cosmic ray intensity

B.

Which of the following contributes about 0.1 mSv annually to man-made radiation exposure?

A. Diagnostic x-rays (Computed and digital radiography)

B. Nuclear research applications (powerplants and radioactive substances)

C. Consumer products (watch dials, smoke detectors, exit signs)

D. Industrial radiation sources

C.

Which of the following is not a consumer product contributing to radiation exposure?

A. Exit signs

B. Camping lantern mantles

C. Smoke detectors

D. CT scanners

D.

Responsibility for minimizing unnecessary medical radiation exposure falls mainly on:

A. Patients

B. Nuclear engineers

C. Radiologic technologists

D. Consumer product manufacturers

C.

Which of the following sources contributes the least to man-made radiation exposure?

A. High-level fluoroscopy

B. CT scans

C. Diagnostic x-rays

D. Consumer products

D.

X-rays were discovered in 1895 by Wilhelm Roentgen while experimenting with:

A. A Crookes tube

B. A Coolidge tube

C. A Geiger counter

D. A cathode ray oscilloscope

A.

The Crookes tube, invented by Sir William Crookes, was originally used to study:

A. Nuclear fission

B. Radio waves

C. Cathode rays

D. Gamma emission

C.

Roentgen discovered x-rays accidentally when a plate coated with which substance began to glow?

A. Calcium tungstate

B. Sodium bicarbonate

C. Technetium-99m

D. Barium platinocyanide

D.

The glow observed by Roentgen during his experiment was termed:

A. Luminescence

B. Phosphorescence

C. Fluorescence

D. Radioluminescence

C.

The “X” in x-rays originally stood for:

A. Extra

B. Experimental

C. Danger

D. Unknown

D.

Which of the following materials did Roentgen test between the Crookes tube and the glowing plate?

A. Lead, copper, and uranium

B. Wood, aluminum, and his hand

C. Glass, steel, and mercury

D. Plastic, silicon, and a make-shift tube

B.

The Crookes tube is considered a precursor to which modern device?

A. Fluorescent lamp and x-ray tube

B. MRI scanner

C. CT scanner and x-ray housing

D. PET scanner

A.

The date of Roentgen’s discovery of x-rays was:

A. December 25, 1890

B. October 10, 1885

C. November 8, 1895

D. January 1, 1890

C.

Roentgen reported his findings on x-rays to the scientific community in:

A. November 1895

B. February 1896

C. January 1901

D. December 1895

D.

Roentgen was awarded the first Nobel Prize in Physics in:

A. 1895

B. 1901

C. 1896

D. 1902

B.

Which statement best describes the significance of Roentgen’s first medical x-ray image?

A. It proved x-rays were a form of sound energy

B. It demonstrated the diagnostic potential of x-rays

C. It showed x-rays could replace visible light

D. It confirmed x-rays were identical to gamma rays

B.

Which of the following was not part of Roentgen’s milestones?

A. First medical x-ray image of his wife’s hand

B. Reporting findings in December 1895

C. Discovery of radium with Marie Curie

D. First US x-ray exam at Dartmouth College

C.

Michael Pupin’s contribution to radiography in 1896 was the demonstration of:

A. Lead apron

B. Double-emulsion radiography

C. Radiographic intensifying screen

D. Stationary grid

C.

Charles L. Leonard’s 1904 innovation in radiography involved:

A. Fluorescent lamp adaptation

B. Reducing scatter radiation

C. Using a moving grid

D. Double-emulsion radiography

D.

William D. Coolidge’s 1913 invention was significant because it introduced:

A. The Crookes tube

B. The hot-cathode x-ray tube

C. The Potter-Bucky grid

D. The image intensifier tube

B.

Gustav Bucky’s 1913 contribution to radiography was the invention of:

A. Stationary grid

B. Moving grid

C. Intensifying screen

D. Image intensifier tube

A.

H. Potter’s independent invention in 1915 led to the development of:

A. Moving grid

B. Stationary Grid

C. Hot-cathode tube

D. Double-emulsion radiography

A.

The Potter-Bucky grid, introduced in 1921, was a combination of innovations by:

A. Roentgen and Pupin

B. Bucky and Potter

C. Coolidge and Leonard

D. Pupin and Coolidge

B.

The Bell Telephone Laboratories’ 1946 development later adapted for fluoroscopy was the:

A. Hot-cathode tube

B. Radiographic intensifying screen

C. Light amplifier tube

D. Stationary grid

C.

The first recorded x-ray fatality in the United States occurred in:

A. 1895

B. 1904

C. 1910

D. 1921

B.

Early radiation injuries in radiology were commonly due to:

A. Short exposure times

B. Long exposure times

C. Protective shielding errors

D. Use of low-energy photons

B.

Which of the following was not a common early radiation injury?

A. Skin damage

B. Hair loss

C. Anemia

D. Bone fracture

D.

By 1910, radiation injuries decreased primarily because of:

A. Study of biological effects of x-rays and improved technology

B. Discovery of radium

C. Use of radioactive consumer products

D. Replacement of x-rays with ultrasound and MRI

A.

Later studies showed radiologists had higher rates of:

A. Aplastic anemia and leukemia

B. Skin cancer and cataracts

C. Bone fractures and arthritis

D. Lung fibrosis and emphysema

A.

Which of the following correctly pairs the year with the event?

A. 1910 - discovery of x-rays

B. 1921 - invention of the Coolidge tube

C. 1904 - first U.S. x-ray fatality

D. 1946 - introduction of protective aprons

C.

Which statement best explains why radiation injuries were frequent in the early years of x-ray use?

A. Lack of awareness of biological effects and prolonged exposure times

B. Overuse of protective and restraining devices

C. Use of ultrasound instead of conventional x-rays

D. Limited access to Crookes tubes

A.

The principle of ALARA in radiation protection means:

A. Exposure should be eliminated completely

B. Exposure should be minimized as low as reasonably achievable

C. Exposure should be equal for technologists and patients

D. Exposure should be maximized for diagnostic accuracy

B.

Filtration in x-ray tubes primarily serves to:

A. Absorb high-energy x-rays that contribute little to diagnosis

B. Enhance scatter radiation

C. Absorb low-energy x-rays that contribute little to diagnosis

D. Produce fluorescence in protective barriers

C.

Collimation improves image quality by:

A. Restricting the x-ray beam to the target area

B. Increasing exposure time

C. Eliminating the need for filtration

D. Enhancing gonadal shielding

A.

Which of the following is an example of protective apparel in radiation safety?

A. Aluminum filters

B. Collimators

C. Lead aprons and gloves

D. Gonadal shields

C.

Gonadal shielding is specifically designed to protect:

A. The lungs

B. The reproductive organs

C. The thyroid gland

D. The skeletal system

B.

Protective barriers in radiology rooms are typically:

A. Lead-lined structures behind which consoles are placed

B. Made of copper filters

C. Transparent highly strong glass panels

D. Aluminum scatter shields and metallic doors

A.

Which of the following correctly matches the principle with its function?

A. Filtration - restricts beam size

B. Collimation - absorbs low-energy x-rays

C. Protective apparel - reduces scatter radiation by collimation

D. Gonadal shielding - protects reproductive organs

D.

During fluoroscopy, personnel protection is best achieved by:

A. Increasing exposure time

B. Using aluminum filters only

C. Wearing lead aprons and gloves

D. Standing closer to the patient

C.

The main purpose of ALARA is to:

A. Eliminate radiation completely

B. Increase scatter radiation for clarity

C. Replace protective barriers

D. Balance diagnostic benefit with minimal exposure

D.

Physics emphasizes measurement because it seeks to:

A. Eliminate reproducibility

B. Focus only on subjective descriptions

C. Avoid numerical values and unnecessary equations

D. Achieve certainty and reproducible descriptions of matter and energy

D.

Every measurement consists of two components, namely:

A. Mass and length

B. Time and distance

C. Magnitude and unit

D. Value and matter

C.

In the example “100 cm,” the number “100” represents:

A. Unit

B. Derived quantity

C. Mass

D. Magnitude

D.

In the example “100 cm,” the “cm” represents:

A. Unit

B. Magnitude

C. Mass

D. Time

A.

The International System (SI) of units is an extension of which ?

A. MKS (meter, kilogram, second)

B. CGS (centimeter, gram, second)

C. FPS (foot, pound, second)

D. British Imperial system

A.

Which of the following is not a in physics?

A. Time

B. Length

C. Mass

D. Velocity

D.

The quantity of matter in an object is defined as:

A. Velocity

B. Length

C. Mass

D. Time

C.

The distance between two points is defined as:

A. Length

B. Mass

C. Time

D. Velocity

A.

The duration of an event is measured as:

A. Length

B. Mass

C. Time

D. Velocity

C.

Historically, the meter was defined as:

A. The length of a platinum-iridium bar kept in Paris

B. The distance light travels in 1/299,792,468 seconds

C. The wavelength of krypton-86 radiation

D. The distance between Earth and the Sun

A.

The current definition of the meter is based on:

A. Distance light travels in a fraction of a second

B. Earth’s rotation

C. Platinum-iridium bar standard

D. Mass of water at 4°C

A.

Which of the following correctly defines volume as a derived quantity?

A. Mass ÷ volume

B. Mass ÷ time

C. Length cubed (l³)

D. Length cubed (l²)

C.

Mass density is expressed as:

A. Length ÷ time (l/t)

B. Volume ÷ mass

C. Mass ÷ volume (m/l³)

D. Time ÷ length

C.

The kilogram was originally defined as:

A. Mass of a platinum-iridium cylinder

B. Mass of 1000 cm³ of water at 4°C

C. Derived from cesium atom vibrations

D. Weight measured in newtons

B.

The current standard for the kilogram is represented by:

A. A cesium atomic clock

B. A lead block used in South america

C. A platinum-iridium cylinder in Paris

D. A liter of water at 4°C

C.

Weight is measured in which ?

A. Newtons or pounds

B. Kilograms or grams

C. Joules

D. Seconds

A.

Historically, time was defined based on:

A. Vibrations of cesium atoms

B. Earth’s rotation (mean solar day)

C. Fraction of the tropical year

D. Distance light travels in a second

B.

The current definition of time is based on:

A. Platinum-iridium bar standard

B. Tropical year fraction

C. Vibration of cesium atoms (atomic clock)

D. Earth’s rotation

C.

Velocity as a derived quantity is expressed as:

A. Length ÷ time (l/t)

B. Mass ÷ volume

C. Time ÷ mass

D. Length cubed (l³)

A.

Mechanics is the branch of physics concerned with:

A. Behavior of matter and energy at atomic level

B. Study of radiation and ionization

C. Study of light and optics

D. Behavior of objects at rest and in motion

D.

Velocity is defined as:

A. Distance multiplied by time

B. Rate of change of position over time

C. Rate of change of acceleration over time

D. Mass divided by volume

B.

The SI unit of velocity is:

A. Meter per second (m/s)

B. Kilometer per hour (km/h)

C. Mile per hour (mph)

D. Newton per second (N/s)

A.

The formula for velocity is as:

A. v = distance/ time

B. v = distance/ weight

C. v = m/ I²

D. v = a/ t

A.