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POD winter '26
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What 3 things lower in the immune system with aging?
number of cells, efficiency of cells, memory of infection
the presence of concurrent illnesses will ____ immune system function
alter
define iatrogenic
medically-induced source
what medical tool for complex fractures is very highly associated with infection?
external fixation devices
what non-medically related factor increases pathogen exposure?
sexual practices
true or false: exercise cannot affect the immune system
false
What intensity of exercise for what duration enhances the immune system (include %VO2max)
moderate (40-70% VO2max) for 10-60 minutes
What intensity of exercise should be used in a HIIT training protocol to enhance immune function?
alternating 80-100% VO2max with 30-40% VO2max for 1-4 minutes and 1-3 minutes respectively
What intensity of exercise will suppress immune function?
long duration high intensity (>/= 70% VO2max for over 60 minutes)
How long can high intensity exercise suppress the immune system for after the workout is completed?
up to 72 hours
Exercise (increases/decreases) number and (phagocytic/apoptotic) activity of neutrophils.
increases, phagocytic
The release of what chemical during moderate intensity exercise stimulates release of neutrophils?
cortisol
how long does it take for neutrophils to return to baseline after prolonged strenuous exercise?
>24 hours
moderate intensity exercise leads to (increased/decreased) number of circulating macrophages
increased
how does exercise influence macrophages to trigger less localized tissue inflammation?
affecting the genetic expression of macrophages to release more anti-inflammatory cytokines
in what type, duration, and intensity of exercise do the number and activity of NK cells increase?
any
where do you see a larger NK response to exercise, in trained or untrained individuals?
untrained
when is hte maximal reduction of NK cells after long duration high intensity exercise?
2-4 hours post-exercise
pre-exercise NK cell values are (higher/lower) than post-long duration high intensity exercise
higher
what immune cell can be permanently suppressed by repeated long-duration-high-intensity exercise?
NK cells
What does moderate intensity exercise do to B and T cells? (3)
increases number of both, increases B cell antibody production, increases cytotoxicity of T cells
what does long-duration-high-intensity exercise do to B and T cells?
decreases numbers, suppresses immunoglobulin production, shifts production of T cells to regulatory
what does the shift of T cell production toward regulatory T cells mean for the immune system?
downregulation
what does long-duration-high-intensity exercise do regarding the inflammatory response?
triggers the acute phase response
Regular exercise can activate cytokines such as IL-6, which can protect against what?
chronic systemic low-grade inflammation
In illness where symptoms are “above the neck,” when can you proceed with regular planned exercise?
when symptoms are alleviated after 10 minutes at half intensity
In illness where symptoms are “above the neck,” when should you cease the planned exercise?
when symptoms worsen or the head is pounding after 10 minutes at half intensity
In illness where symptoms are “below the neck,” when can you proceed with regular planned exercise?
never! do not initiate
when should you initiate exercise with a fever?
never
what are the exceptions for exercising with a fever or “below the neck” symptoms?
to maintain ROM, circulate fluid, and avoid pressure wounds
define immunosenescence
general decline in normal functioning of the immune system
true or false": regular exercise cannot delay the onset of immunosenescence
false
true or false: geriatric patients often can tolerate high intensity exercise to a greater degree than younger patients without the same immune impairments
true (don’t underdose geriatrics)
define primary immune deficiencies
typically genetic, concerning deficiencies in innate or adaptive immunity
what would a deficiency in the C1 regulatory inhibitor complement proteins cause?
hereditary angioedema
what would a deficiency in the C3 complement proteins cause?
increased vulnerability to pyogenic bacteria
define pyogenic
pus-forming
what would a deficiency in the C1q, C2, C4 complement proteins cause?
increased risk of immune mediated diseases due to impaired clearance of cells
what would a deficiency in the C5-C8 complement proteins cause?
increased infection by meningococci bacteria
what do phagocyte deficiencies cause?
recurrent infections with encapsulated bacteria
what are phagocyte deficiencies linked with?
antibody and complement deficiencies
what are secondary immune deficiencies?
deficiencies that occur as a result of another condition
What does HIV selectively attack and incapacitate?
CD4+ helper T cells
What does HIV do to the immune system by taking out its specific target?
reduces promotion of immunity, ability to downregulate adaptive immune response, weaken B cell antibody production, and more (general chaos and bad things)
approximately how many people (%) are unaware of their HIV status?
25% of the world
as of 2015, what is the most common way for females to contract HIV?
heterosexual sex
what are the 3 routes of transmission of HIV?
contaminated blood, sexual activity, maternal to child
define fomite
inanimate objects people come into contact with that may transport a pathogen
what are the 6 phases in the HIV life cycle?
binding, fusion, reverse transcription, integration, assembly, budding
how does HIV become AIDS in the body?
primary infection of HIV migrating to lymphoid tissue leads to systemic spread. body controls initial infection, but as previously infected CD4+ T cells replicate they copy some of the HIV DNA from the integration phase of the HIV , leading to extensive viral replication, which causes destruction of CD4+ cells; this destruction of lymphoid tissue leads to AIDS
what are 6 different clinical manifestations of HIV (from 6 different categories)?
inflammatory joint disorders, peripheral neuropathy, opportunistic infection, delayed wound healing, renal failure
what is HAART
highly active antiretroviral therapy
what does HAART do?
control HIV so it is less likely to progress to AIDS
which drugs target phase 1 of the HIV life cycle?
CCR5 antagonists and postattachment inhibitors
which drugs target phase 2 of the HIV life cycle?
fusion inhibitors
which drugs target phase 3 of the HIV life cycle?
NRTIs and NNRTIs
which drugs target phase 4 of the HIV life cycle?
integrase inhibitors
which drugs target phase 7 of the HIV life cycle?
protease inhibitors (PIs)
what does PT management of HIV/AIDS look like?
helping them remain as functionally independent as possible
what causes autoimmune diseases?
when we have generated antibodies and T cells in response to self
true or false: if you have one autoimmune disease, you are unlikely to develop another one
false
there is a strong correlation between which later development of autoimmune disease and contraction of which viral infection?
Epstein-Barr virus
What are 3 risk factors for autoimmune diseases?
hormones, environment, genetics
are autoimmune diseases more common in males or females?
females
what is the pathophysiology of systemic lupus erthymatosus?
development of self-antibodies leading to deposition of antigen-antibody complexes in the tissue, causing increase of inflammation and tissue damage
SLE is more common in (young/old) (men/women) and has a strong component of _____ susceptibility
young, women, genetic
what are 5 clinical manifestations of SLE?
joint pain/inflammation, butterfly malar rash, vasculitis, headaches, mucous membrane lesions and ulcers
what does it look like to manage SLE with PT?
maintaining activity and function while minimizing pain and flare ups
what is myalgic encephalomyelitis/chronic fatigue syndrome (ME/CFS)? (in general)
unexplained fatigue of greater than or equal to 6 months in duration
true or false: ME/CFS has very specific diagnostic criteria but is often overdiagnosed
true
what causes ME/CFS?
it is a post-viral condition not caused by a single disease process
what percentage of individuals with ME/CFS are female?
75%
what percentage of people with ME/CFS report an infecitton as the trrigger for their symptoms?
75%
what is the believed etiology of ME/CFS?
dysfunction of interaction between immune system and neuroendocrine system
what does it mean to be a diagnosis of exclusion?
criteria are met AND all other disease processes that cause similar symptoms are ruled out before diagnosis is made
individuals with symptoms of CFS for ____ years or (more/less) are more likely to improve
2, less
what perrcentage of individuals with CFS experience full ermission?
5-10%
what does PT management of ME/CFS look like?
very carefully controlled and graded exercise, with lots of patient education on activity pacing and ergonomic support
what are the 4 classes of hypersensitivity disorders? (in order 1-4)
IgE-mediated reaction, tissue-specific reaction, immune complex-mediated reaction, cell-mediated reaction
which of the 4 hypersensitivity disorder classes has a delayed rate of development and no antibodies nor complement involved?
cell-mediated reaction (type 4)
what are type 1 hypersensitivity disorders?
IgE-mediated antibody binds with receptors on basophils and mast cells to releease histamine, causing an allergic reaction
what are the 5 mechanisms of type 2 hypersensitivity disorders?
lysis of target cell via adaptive immunity, phagocytosis of target cell, complement promotes neutrophil activity, NK cells attack, antibody prevents normal cell function
what are type 3 hypersensitivity disorders?
formation of antigen-antibody immune complexes in blood and deposited in vessels and extravascular tissue, triggering attempts to remove it which then damage the tissue
what are type 4 hypersensitivity disorders?
body uses T lymphocyte mediated reactions rather than antibody reactions
why are type 4 hypersensitivity disorders delayed?
they have to wait for the activation of helper and cytotoxic T cells in the adaptive immunity pathway
what 2 types of hypersensitivity disorders have symptoms that depend on the tissue that is affected?
type 2 and 4
what is fibromyalgia?
disruption of neuro-immuno-endocrine function causing muscle pain
true or false: fibromyalgia is a subset of ME/CFS
false (distinct disease processes)
___% of individuals affected by fibromyalgia are (men/women)
90, women
what are 2 primary goals of the medical treatment of fibromyalgia?
pain management and improving quality of sleep
what are 2 main approaches to PT treatment of fibromyalgia?
pain management and graded exercise
what is isoimmune disease?
transplant rejection
what causes isoimmune disease?
incompatibility of cell surface antigens
what are 4 lab values to supervise in immune system function?
white blood cell count, platelets, red blood cell count, hemoglobin
what is the normal range for WBC count?
<2,500 or >30,000
what is the normal range for platelets?
<50,000 or >1 million
what is the normal range for RBC count?
4.2-6.1
what is the normal range for hemoglobin?
<5 or >20
anemia refers to a low value of ___ or ____
RBCs, hemoglobin
“thrombo-” is in reference to:
platelets