Immune System part 2

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POD winter '26

Last updated 4:44 PM on 4/13/26
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116 Terms

1
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What 3 things lower in the immune system with aging?

number of cells, efficiency of cells, memory of infection

2
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the presence of concurrent illnesses will ____ immune system function

alter

3
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define iatrogenic

medically-induced source

4
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what medical tool for complex fractures is very highly associated with infection?

external fixation devices

5
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what non-medically related factor increases pathogen exposure?

sexual practices

6
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true or false: exercise cannot affect the immune system

false

7
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What intensity of exercise for what duration enhances the immune system (include %VO2max)

moderate (40-70% VO2max) for 10-60 minutes

8
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What intensity of exercise should be used in a HIIT training protocol to enhance immune function?

alternating 80-100% VO2max with 30-40% VO2max for 1-4 minutes and 1-3 minutes respectively

9
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What intensity of exercise will suppress immune function?

long duration high intensity (>/= 70% VO2max for over 60 minutes)

10
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How long can high intensity exercise suppress the immune system for after the workout is completed?

up to 72 hours

11
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Exercise (increases/decreases) number and (phagocytic/apoptotic) activity of neutrophils.

increases, phagocytic

12
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The release of what chemical during moderate intensity exercise stimulates release of neutrophils?

cortisol

13
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how long does it take for neutrophils to return to baseline after prolonged strenuous exercise?

>24 hours

14
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moderate intensity exercise leads to (increased/decreased) number of circulating macrophages

increased

15
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how does exercise influence macrophages to trigger less localized tissue inflammation?

affecting the genetic expression of macrophages to release more anti-inflammatory cytokines

16
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in what type, duration, and intensity of exercise do the number and activity of NK cells increase?

any

17
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where do you see a larger NK response to exercise, in trained or untrained individuals?

untrained

18
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when is hte maximal reduction of NK cells after long duration high intensity exercise?

2-4 hours post-exercise

19
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pre-exercise NK cell values are (higher/lower) than post-long duration high intensity exercise

higher

20
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what immune cell can be permanently suppressed by repeated long-duration-high-intensity exercise?

NK cells

21
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What does moderate intensity exercise do to B and T cells? (3)

increases number of both, increases B cell antibody production, increases cytotoxicity of T cells

22
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what does long-duration-high-intensity exercise do to B and T cells?

decreases numbers, suppresses immunoglobulin production, shifts production of T cells to regulatory

23
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what does the shift of T cell production toward regulatory T cells mean for the immune system?

downregulation

24
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what does long-duration-high-intensity exercise do regarding the inflammatory response?

triggers the acute phase response

25
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Regular exercise can activate cytokines such as IL-6, which can protect against what?

chronic systemic low-grade inflammation

26
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In illness where symptoms are “above the neck,” when can you proceed with regular planned exercise?

when symptoms are alleviated after 10 minutes at half intensity

27
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In illness where symptoms are “above the neck,” when should you cease the planned exercise?

when symptoms worsen or the head is pounding after 10 minutes at half intensity

28
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In illness where symptoms are “below the neck,” when can you proceed with regular planned exercise?

never! do not initiate

29
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when should you initiate exercise with a fever?

never

30
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what are the exceptions for exercising with a fever or “below the neck” symptoms?

to maintain ROM, circulate fluid, and avoid pressure wounds

31
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define immunosenescence

general decline in normal functioning of the immune system

32
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true or false": regular exercise cannot delay the onset of immunosenescence

false

33
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true or false: geriatric patients often can tolerate high intensity exercise to a greater degree than younger patients without the same immune impairments

true (don’t underdose geriatrics)

34
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define primary immune deficiencies

typically genetic, concerning deficiencies in innate or adaptive immunity

35
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what would a deficiency in the C1 regulatory inhibitor complement proteins cause?

hereditary angioedema

36
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what would a deficiency in the C3 complement proteins cause?

increased vulnerability to pyogenic bacteria

37
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define pyogenic

pus-forming

38
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what would a deficiency in the C1q, C2, C4 complement proteins cause?

increased risk of immune mediated diseases due to impaired clearance of cells

39
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what would a deficiency in the C5-C8 complement proteins cause?

increased infection by meningococci bacteria

40
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what do phagocyte deficiencies cause?

recurrent infections with encapsulated bacteria

41
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what are phagocyte deficiencies linked with?

antibody and complement deficiencies

42
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what are secondary immune deficiencies?

deficiencies that occur as a result of another condition

43
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What does HIV selectively attack and incapacitate?

CD4+ helper T cells

44
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What does HIV do to the immune system by taking out its specific target?

reduces promotion of immunity, ability to downregulate adaptive immune response, weaken B cell antibody production, and more (general chaos and bad things)

45
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approximately how many people (%) are unaware of their HIV status?

25% of the world

46
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as of 2015, what is the most common way for females to contract HIV?

heterosexual sex

47
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what are the 3 routes of transmission of HIV?

contaminated blood, sexual activity, maternal to child

48
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define fomite

inanimate objects people come into contact with that may transport a pathogen

49
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what are the 6 phases in the HIV life cycle?

binding, fusion, reverse transcription, integration, assembly, budding

50
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how does HIV become AIDS in the body?

primary infection of HIV migrating to lymphoid tissue leads to systemic spread. body controls initial infection, but as previously infected CD4+ T cells replicate they copy some of the HIV DNA from the integration phase of the HIV , leading to extensive viral replication, which causes destruction of CD4+ cells; this destruction of lymphoid tissue leads to AIDS

51
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what are 6 different clinical manifestations of HIV (from 6 different categories)?

inflammatory joint disorders, peripheral neuropathy, opportunistic infection, delayed wound healing, renal failure

52
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what is HAART

highly active antiretroviral therapy

53
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what does HAART do?

control HIV so it is less likely to progress to AIDS

54
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which drugs target phase 1 of the HIV life cycle?

CCR5 antagonists and postattachment inhibitors

55
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which drugs target phase 2 of the HIV life cycle?

fusion inhibitors

56
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which drugs target phase 3 of the HIV life cycle?

NRTIs and NNRTIs

57
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which drugs target phase 4 of the HIV life cycle?

integrase inhibitors

58
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which drugs target phase 7 of the HIV life cycle?

protease inhibitors (PIs)

59
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what does PT management of HIV/AIDS look like?

helping them remain as functionally independent as possible

60
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what causes autoimmune diseases?

when we have generated antibodies and T cells in response to self

61
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true or false: if you have one autoimmune disease, you are unlikely to develop another one

false

62
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there is a strong correlation between which later development of autoimmune disease and contraction of which viral infection?

Epstein-Barr virus

63
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What are 3 risk factors for autoimmune diseases?

hormones, environment, genetics

64
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are autoimmune diseases more common in males or females?

females

65
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what is the pathophysiology of systemic lupus erthymatosus?

development of self-antibodies leading to deposition of antigen-antibody complexes in the tissue, causing increase of inflammation and tissue damage

66
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SLE is more common in (young/old) (men/women) and has a strong component of _____ susceptibility

young, women, genetic

67
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what are 5 clinical manifestations of SLE?

joint pain/inflammation, butterfly malar rash, vasculitis, headaches, mucous membrane lesions and ulcers

68
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what does it look like to manage SLE with PT?

maintaining activity and function while minimizing pain and flare ups

69
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what is myalgic encephalomyelitis/chronic fatigue syndrome (ME/CFS)? (in general)

unexplained fatigue of greater than or equal to 6 months in duration

70
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true or false: ME/CFS has very specific diagnostic criteria but is often overdiagnosed

true

71
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what causes ME/CFS?

it is a post-viral condition not caused by a single disease process

72
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what percentage of individuals with ME/CFS are female?

75%

73
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what percentage of people with ME/CFS report an infecitton as the trrigger for their symptoms?

75%

74
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what is the believed etiology of ME/CFS?

dysfunction of interaction between immune system and neuroendocrine system

75
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what does it mean to be a diagnosis of exclusion?

criteria are met AND all other disease processes that cause similar symptoms are ruled out before diagnosis is made

76
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individuals with symptoms of CFS for ____ years or (more/less) are more likely to improve

2, less

77
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what perrcentage of individuals with CFS experience full ermission?

5-10%

78
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what does PT management of ME/CFS look like?

very carefully controlled and graded exercise, with lots of patient education on activity pacing and ergonomic support

79
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what are the 4 classes of hypersensitivity disorders? (in order 1-4)

IgE-mediated reaction, tissue-specific reaction, immune complex-mediated reaction, cell-mediated reaction

80
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which of the 4 hypersensitivity disorder classes has a delayed rate of development and no antibodies nor complement involved?

cell-mediated reaction (type 4)

81
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what are type 1 hypersensitivity disorders?

IgE-mediated antibody binds with receptors on basophils and mast cells to releease histamine, causing an allergic reaction

82
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what are the 5 mechanisms of type 2 hypersensitivity disorders?

lysis of target cell via adaptive immunity, phagocytosis of target cell, complement promotes neutrophil activity, NK cells attack, antibody prevents normal cell function

83
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what are type 3 hypersensitivity disorders?

formation of antigen-antibody immune complexes in blood and deposited in vessels and extravascular tissue, triggering attempts to remove it which then damage the tissue

84
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what are type 4 hypersensitivity disorders?

body uses T lymphocyte mediated reactions rather than antibody reactions

85
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why are type 4 hypersensitivity disorders delayed?

they have to wait for the activation of helper and cytotoxic T cells in the adaptive immunity pathway

86
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what 2 types of hypersensitivity disorders have symptoms that depend on the tissue that is affected?

type 2 and 4

87
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what is fibromyalgia?

disruption of neuro-immuno-endocrine function causing muscle pain

88
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true or false: fibromyalgia is a subset of ME/CFS

false (distinct disease processes)

89
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___% of individuals affected by fibromyalgia are (men/women)

90, women

90
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what are 2 primary goals of the medical treatment of fibromyalgia?

pain management and improving quality of sleep

91
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what are 2 main approaches to PT treatment of fibromyalgia?

pain management and graded exercise

92
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what is isoimmune disease?

transplant rejection

93
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what causes isoimmune disease?

incompatibility of cell surface antigens

94
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what are 4 lab values to supervise in immune system function?

white blood cell count, platelets, red blood cell count, hemoglobin

95
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what is the normal range for WBC count?

<2,500 or >30,000

96
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what is the normal range for platelets?

<50,000 or >1 million

97
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what is the normal range for RBC count?

4.2-6.1

98
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what is the normal range for hemoglobin?

<5 or >20

99
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anemia refers to a low value of ___ or ____

RBCs, hemoglobin

100
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“thrombo-” is in reference to:

platelets