[MANOR] Pharmacology - Practice Question - Set 1

PROVERBS 16;3

b. concentration gradient across a membrane separating body compartment

The driving force for passive absorption of a drug is the:

a. specific carrier proteins and shows saturation kinetics

b. concentration gradient across a membrane separating body compartment

c. both

d. none

d. all

Physical factors influencing absorption:

a. total surface area available for absorption

b. contact time at the absorption surface

c. blood flow to the absorption site

d. all

e. none

Clinical effectiveness often depends on:

a. minimum serum drug concentration

b. minimum serum concentration

c. time after concentration required to reach onset of concentration

d. all

e. none

a. minimum serum drug concentration

Process by which drugs find their way into the urine, EXCEPT:

a. active glomerular filtration d. passive glomerular filtration

b. active tubular secretion e. none

c. passive tubular secretion

d. passive glomerular filtration

e. none

a. active glomerular filtration d. passive glomerular filtration

A drug which has no effect enhances the effect of a second drug:

a. antagonism

b. potentiation

c. synergism

d. summative

e. additive

b. potentiation

Parameters used to evaluate time-response relationship, EXCEPT:

a. duration of action

b. latency

c. peak time

d. onset of action

e. none

e. none

Clinical effectiveness often depends on:

a. maximum serum drug concentration

b. minimum serum drug concentration

c. time after the administration to reach the onset of concentration

d. all

e. none

b. minimum serum drug concentration

When the dose of the drug is gradually increased and the first noticeable effect is observed, the dose that

produces this effect is called:

a. quantal dose

b. threshold dose

c. lethal dose

d. a and b

e. b and c

b. threshold dose

Regulates and directs sensory impulses traveling to the cortex:

a. thalamus

b. pons

c. medulla

d. hypothalamus

a. thalamus

10.Inhaled anesthetics are relatively insoluble in blood and brain are eliminated at faster rate than the more

soluble anesthetics:

a. True

b. False

a. True

Coordinate body movement and posture to help maintain body equilibrium:

a. cerebrum of the peptide bond

b. main stem of H-bond

c. cerebellum

d. none

c. cerebellum

Treatment of neuroses:

a. psychotherapy

b. anxiolytic

c. antianxiety agent

d. all

e. none

d. all

Used prophylactically in treating manic depressive patients and in the treatment of manic episodes:

a. anti-psychotics

b. lithium salts

c. anxiolytic drugs

d. all

b. lithium salts

Used in treating complex partial seizure:

a. Phenytoin

b. Carbamazepine

c. both

d. none

c. both

Generalized tonic-clonic drug:

a. Phenobarbital

b. Phenytoin

c. Diazepam

d. Valproic acid

b. Phenytoin

The most important criterion in determining whether surgical anesthesia has been achieved is:

a. papillary dilation

b. respiratory lagging

c. absence of eye motion

d. vomiting

c. absence of eye motion

The branch of pharmacology that deals with the study of the action of drug on functions of the body:

a. Toxicology

b. Pharmacodynamics

c. Pharmaokinetics

d. none

b. Pharmacodynamics

Drug of choice in the treatment of status epiliptecus:

a. Phenobarbital

b. Diphenylhydantoin

c. Diazepam

d. all

c. Diazepam

An anti-platelet drug:

a. Dipyridamole

b. Urokinase

c. Heparin

d. all

a. Dipyridamole

The branch of pharmacology that deals with disposition and fate of drug is:

a. Pharmacodynamics

b. Pharmacokinetics

c. both

d. none

b. Pharmacokinetics

Causes mydriasis by blocking the parasympathetic impulses to the sphincter muscle of the iris:

a. Atropine

b. Cocaine

c. Lidocaine

d. all

a. Atropine

Drug of choice for Tularemia:

a. Streptomycin

b. Griseofulvin

c. Amphotericin

d. all

a. Streptomycin

The ff. conditions are prone to thrombus formation, EXCEPT:

a. Arrhythmia

b. varicose vein

c. thrombocytopenia

d. none

a. Arrhythmia

Can improve the CO of CHF patient:

a. Dobutamine

b. Reserpine

c. all

d. none

a. Dobutamine

Effective for the management of acute gouty arthritis:

a. Probenecid

b. Aspirin

c. Allopurinol

d. all

c. Allopurinol

Derease the probability of second MI:

a. Heparin

b. Aspirin

c. Streptokinase

d. none

b. Aspirin

Inhibits warfarin metabolism and causes potentiation of anticoagulant:

a. Rifampin

b. Cimetidine

c. Disulfiram

d. all

b. Cimetidine

Histamine H1 receptor blockers are useful in the treatment of:

a. rhinitis

b. urticaria

c. all

d. none

c. all

It is the treatment of choice for influenza infection:

a. Vidarabine

b. Zidovudine

c. Amantadine

d. all

c. Amantadine

It can lead to discoloration of teeth if given to children:

a. Aminoglycoside

b. Tetracylcine

c. Penicillin

d. Lincomycin

b. Tetracylcine

Which of the ff. agents shows cytotoxicity that is cell cycle specific?

a. Bleomycin

b. Dactiomycin

c. Lumustine

d. none

a. Bleomycin

During times of stress, the adrenal gland releases ___ into the blood.

a. epinephrine

b. adrenaline

c. acetylcholine

d. a and b

e. b and c

d. a and

Acetylcholine transmits all parasympathetic signals to end organs by binding to:

a. receptor site

b. cholinergic nervous system

c. muscarinic receptors

d. ganglionic receptor

e. none

c. muscarinic receptors

Increase calcium influx into myocardial cells during heart failure:

a. Atenolol

b. Digoxin

c. Streptokinase

d. all

e. none

b. Digoxin

Draw water into the urine, without interfering with ion secretion or absorption in the kidney:

a. Loop diuretics

b. Thiazide diuretics

d. potassium-sparing diuretics

e. all

c. Osmotic diuretics

c. Osmotic diuretics

Arrhythmia occurs because one or more regions of the heart is/are:

a. beating too fast

b. beating too slowly

c. beating automatically without regard for impulses originating from SA node

d. all

e. none

d. all

Clinically useful agents which enhance neurotransmission include the ff, EXCEPT:

a. receptor agonist

b. drugs which prevent transmitter degradation

c. ganglionic blockers

d. agents which induce neurotransmitter release

e. none

c. ganglionic blockers

Responsible for reducing the release of NE from sympathetic nerves:

a. Beta 1 postsynaptic adrenergic receptor

b. Beta 2 postsynaptic adrenergic receptor

c. Alpha 1 postsynaptic adrenergic receptor

d. Alpha 2 postsynaptic adrenergic receptor

e. all

d. Alpha 2 postsynaptic adrenergic receptor

Produces competitive antagonism of catecholamine by blockade of alpha 1 receptors:

a. Phenoxybenzamine

b. Phentolamine

c. Ephedrine

d. all

e. none

b. Phentolamine

This may occur when the electrical conduction pathways malfunction:

a. chest pain

b. hypertension

c. arrhythmias

d. MI

e. all

c. arrhythmias

Placebo may be given:

a. as a control of specific evaluation of drugs

b. to benefit/please a patient not by any pharmacological actions but by psychological means

c. to patients with mild psychological disorders who attribute their symptoms to physical disease

d. all of these

e. none of these

d. all of these

A branch of pharmacology that deals with the study of doses:

a. Pharmacy

b. Posology

c. Toxicology

d. Pharmacognosy

b. Posology

It refers to the fate of the drug during its sojourn through the body:

a. Pharmacokinetics

b. Pharmacodynamics

c. Pharmacogenetics

d. Pharmacotherapeutics

a. Pharmacokinetics

Drugs administered by inhalation are absorbed in the:

a. small intestine

b. nasal mucosa

c. lungs

d. stomach

c. lungs

Weak acids are reabsorbed into the bloodstream when:

a. the urinary pH is high

b. the urine is made alkaline

c. the urinary pH is low

d. all situations apply

c. the urinary pH is low

All of the ff. are catecholamines, EXCEPT:

a. Acetylcholine

b. Norepinephrine

c. 5HT

d. Dopamine

a. Acetylcholine

Which of the following is an inhibitory amino acid?

a. Glutamate

b. Aspartate

c. GABA

d. none of these

c. GABA

The following situations give rise to excitatory postsynaptic potential (EPSP), EXCEPT:

a. Na+ conductance

b. opening of Ca++ion channel

c. depolarization of the membrane

d. opening of Cl- ion channel

d. opening of Cl- ion channel

The response characterized by increasing magnitude with greater concentration of unbound drug at the

receptor site:

a. "graded"

b. quantal

c. all-or-none

d. margin of safety

a. "graded"

It refers to the relative concentration required to produce a given magnitude of effect:

a. affinity

b. efficacy

c. potency

d. none of these

c. potency

Interaction of two drugs whose opposing actions in the body tend to cancel each other's effect:

a. noncompetitive

b. chemical

c. physiological

d. pharmacokinetic

c. physiological

The period from the drug administration to the first visible effect is:

a. onset of action

b. duration of action

c. ceiling effect

d. peak time

a. onset of action

Parkinson's disease is due to:

a. excessive cholinergic activity

b. damage to the basal ganglia

c. deficiency of dopamine level in the brain

d. all of these

d. all of these

When MAOi is taken with tyramine containing food it can result to serious consequences such as:

a. hypertensive crisis

b. cerebral stroke

c. insomnia

d. a and b only

e. all

d. a and b only

Meclizine is used to prevent nausea and vomiting due to:

a. vertigo

b. motion sickness

c. either a or b

d. neither a nor b

c. either

Antipsychotic agents reduce hallucinations and agitation by:

a. blocking the reuptake of NE and SE

b. blocking the dopamine receptors

c. ether a or b

d. neither a nor b

a. blocking the reuptake of NE and SE

Antihistamines can be used clinically as:

a. antiemetic

b. sedative

c. anti-allergy

d. all

d. all

A drug used to treat chronic alcoholism:

a. Diazepam

b. Zolpidem

c. Flumazenil

d. Disulfiram

d. Disulfiram

The following are pharmacological actions of benzodiazepines, EXCEPT:

a. reduction of anxiety

b. sedation

c. anti-emetics

d. anticonvulsants

d. anticonvulsants

Alcohol can produce the following peripheral effects, EXCEPT:

a. diuresis

b. dilation of the blood vessels in the skin

c. loss of memory

d. stimulates secretions of gastric juices

c. loss of memory

All of the ff. statements about the extrapyramidal effects of antipsychotics are correct, EXEPT:

a. these are caused by the blockade of the dopamine receptors on the basal ganglia

b. can be counteracted by the administration of anticholinergic

c. if therapy is stopped, tardive dyskinesia occurs

d. haloperidol does not cause extrapyramidal effects

d. haloperidol does not cause extrapyramidal effects

Pharmacological effects brought about by dopamine receptor blockade, EXCEPT:

a. stimulation of the vomiting center

b. development of parkinsonian signs

c. reduce schizophrenic symptoms

d. decrease stimulation of the CTZ

a. stimulation of the vomiting center

Which of the ff. statements is CORRECT about Loperamide?

a. it is used to control diarrhea

b. it has analgesic property

c. it enters the brain

d. it is an NSAID

e. all

a. it is used to control diarrhea

Which of the ff. statements is NOT TRUE about paracetamol?

a. it lacks anti-inflammatory property

b. preferred drug to lower elevated body temperature

c. overdose can lead to hepatic injury

d. associated with Reye's syndrome in children

d. associated with Reye's syndrome in children

A dissociative anesthetic agent:

a. Thiopental

b. Innovar

c. Ketamine

d. Halothane

e. Propofol

c. Ketamine

A drug useful in febrile seizure:

a. Diazepam

b. Trimethadione

c. Phenobarbital

d. Valproic acid

c. Phenobarbital

A drug that reverses the effects of morphine and heroin by competitively blocking the opioid receptors:

a. methadone

b. nalbuphine

c. butorphanol

d. naloxone

d. naloxone

It refers to a change of one or more of the pharmacokinetic processes with increasing dose size:

a. disposition

b. clinical pharmacokinetics

c. dose dependency

d. depot phase

c. dose dependency

Cleaning out of stomach by repeated infusion of water using rubber tube:

a. gastric lavage

b. emesis

c. anaphylaxis

d. hydration

a. gastric lavage

The process with the slowest rate constant in a system of simultaneous kinetic processes:

a. lag time

b. rate limiting step

c. bioequivalence

d. accumulation

b. rate limiting step

The measured preparation devised to make possible the administration of medications in prescribed or

measured amounts:

a. dose size

b. dosage form

c. dosage regimen

d. drug

b. dosage form

The sum of all body regions in which the drug concentration is an instantaneous equilibrium with that in

blood or plasma:

a. clearance

b. accumulation

c. depot phase

d. central compartment

d. central compartment

Loss of drug from the central compartment due to transfer to another compartment:

a. apparent partition coefficient

b. biliary recycling

c. disposition

d. creatinine clearance

c. disposition

The extent of protein binding is determined in vitro by the ff. mechanisms, EXCEPT:

a. ultracentrifugation

b. dialysis

c. endocytosis

d. eletrphoresis

c. endocytosis

A phase I biotransformation reaction, EXCEPT:

a. methylation

b. sulfoxidation

c. deamination

d. hydrolysis

a. methylation

A phase II biotransformation, EXCEPT:

a. methylation

b. reduction

c. acetylation

d. conjugation

b. reduction

Non-irritating to the larynx and produces bronchiolar dilation:

a. halothane

b. nitrous oxide

c. desflurane

d. isoflurane

a. halothane

Commonly used spinal anesthetic that is 10 times more potent than procaine:

a. cocaine

b. lidocaine

c. tetracaine

d. procaine

c. tetracaine

Which of the ff. effects is associated with benzodiazepines?

a. paradoxical excitement

b. ataxia

c. morphine

d. all of the above

d. all of the above

Is a potent ultra short-acting non barbiturate hypnotic agent without analgesic properties:

a. diazepam

b. etomidate

c. morphine

d. cocaine

b. etomidate

It is an important autonomic nervous system center wherein it plays a role in the regulation of body

temperature water balance, and metabolism:

a. hypothalamus

b. thalamus

c. diencephalons

d. broca's area

a. hypothalamus

It triggers the ovulation of an egg from the female ovary and causes the ruptured follicle to be converted to a

corpus luteum:

a. thyrotropic hormone

b. prolactin

c. luteinizing hormone

d. follicle-stimulating hormone

c. luteinizing hormone

The standard of comparison for potency of general anesthetic agent is:

a. minimum alveolar concentration

b. solubility

c. partition coefficient

d. maximum vapor concentration

a. minimum alveolar concentration

Benzodiazepines are used therapeutically for all of the ff. indications, EXCEPT:

a. panic disorder

b. schizophrenia

c. status epilepticus

d. insomnia

c. status epilepticus

Which of the following effects is produced by morphine, EXCEPT:

a. Relief of dyspnea accompanying pulmonary edema

b. Decreased sensitivity of the respiratory center to CO 2

c. Mydriasis that can be blocked by atropine

d. Vasodilation of cerebral blood vessels

c. Mydriasis that can be blocked by atropine

Benzodiazepines differ from barbiturates in that benzodiazepines:

a. facilitate the action of GABA on neuronal chloride channels

b. have anticonvulsant activity

c. may induce physical dependence

d. have a higher margin of safety than barbiturates

d. have a higher margin of safety than barbiturates

Classified as an amide-type local anesthetic, EXCEPT:

a. prilocaine

b. bupivacaine

c. lidocaine

d. procaine

d. procaine

This drug has both local anesthetic and antiarrhythmic properties:

a. halothane

b. isoflurane

c. desflurane

d. lidocaine

d. lidocaine

This drug produces rapid analgesia and amnesia while maintaining laryngeal reflexes:

a. dissociative anesthesia

b. balanced anesthesia

c. neuroleptanesia

d. local anesthesia

a. dissociative anesthesia

Contraindicated to patients with seizure disorders:

a. isoflurane

b. cocaine

c. enflurane

d. desflurane

b. cocaine

Leukopenia has been reported with chronic abuse of ____.

a. diethyl ether

b. bupivacaine

c. droperidol

d. nitrous oxide

d. nitrous oxide

This drug produces tolerance, abuse, hyperyrexia and anorexia:

a. cocaine

b. procaine

c. tetracaine

d. lidocaine

a. cocaine

Postulates that the local anesthetic displaces Ca++ from a site near the Na+ channel and blocks the adjacent

Na+ channel:

a. specific receptor theory

b. membrane expansion theory

c. lock and key theory

d. lidocaine

a. specific receptor theory

The most serious adverse effect of local anesthetics:

a. respiratory failure

b. seizures

c. hypotension

d. allergic reaction

b. seizures

The agent which has a parasympathetic effect that can cause bradycardia and hypotension:

a. droperidol

b. fentanyl

c. alfentanil

d. morphine

b. fentanyl

Which of the ff. agents may be considered the drug of choice for the treatment of absence seizures?

a. phenytoin

b. phenobarbital

c. carbamazepine

d. ethosuximide

d. ethosuximide

Softening of the bones caused by a deficiency of Vitamin D either from a poor diet or lack of sunshine or

both:

a. osteoporosis

b. osteoarthritis

c. osteomalacia

d. osteomyelitits

c. osteomalacia

A stage of anesthesia where there is loss of consciousness and is characterized by irregular respiration and

involuntary activity:

a. delirium

b. analgesia

c. surgical

d. medullary paralysis

a. delirium

If a drug stimulates its own metabolism, the phenomenon is called:

a. auto-induction

b. cross-induction

c. foreign induction

d. enzyme induction

a. auto-induction

The protein binding of a drug is defined by:

a. the absorption constant

b. the affinity constant

c. the distribution equilibrium

d. all of the choices

b. the affinity constant