Instruments 2 Exam (VT-10 Primary INAV Ground School 2025)

Slow to ____ KIAS or less when descending below 10,000' MSL

250

What is the Visual Decent Point Equation?

HAT divided by (Approach Angle x 100)

If weather is AT LEAST 500 above MVA and 3 miles visibility, what are the approach intercept requirements?

At least 1 Mile from FAF at max 20 degree intercept or At least 3 miles from FAF at max 30 degrees intercept

If weather is LESS THAN AT LEAST 500 above MVA or 3 miles visibility, what are the approach intercept requirements?

At least 3 miles from FAF at max 30 degree intercept

What are the required radio calls to be read back?

Assigned Headings, Attitudes, and Altimeter Settings

Attempt to contact Controlling Agency if no transmissions received for approximately ___ min while being vectored, ____ seconds on ASR or PAR w/ GS Final, or ___ seconds on PAR Final.

1, 15, 5

If you cannot establish contact with controlling agency due to Lost Comms, what do you do?

Proceed VFR and Land

If unable to proceed VFR after unable to establish contact with controlling agency, what do you do?

Establish backup approach

What shall be done after you advise the Pilot to execute a Missed Approach?

Climb, Clean, Turn, Talk

On a PAR approach, who determines the DH or DA?

GCA controller or SNFO, whichever altitude occurs first

Which controller, between Pensacola Approach or Sherman GCA, provides Lost Comms and Climb Out instructions?

Pensacola Approach does while on vectors to Downwind or Base while GCA only talks to aircraft on Final Approach Course

Regarding Holding EFC time, ATC should contact you within _____ minutes of the EFC

5 minutes

Which type of Descent allows you to determine when to descend, what rate of descent, and when you choose to level off at any altitude during the descent?

Pilot Discretion descent

When assigned a Pilot Discretion descent, once you vacate the altitude, can you return to it?

No

How do you calculate for Descent Gradient?

1. DG = Altitude in 100s divided by NM

2. GS/60 to get NM/Min

3. DG x (GS/60 x 100)

What are the steps to get the Descent Gradient/VSI?

1. Obtain your DG* (Altitude to Descend in 100s divided by distance in NM)

2. Obtain your NM per Minutes (Ground speed divided by 60 or MACH multiplied by 10)

3. Obtain your VSI (Feet per minute) [DG x (GS/60 x 100)]

Which type of approach has a holding pattern (bolded) at the IAF which is still required to use normal holding procedures?

HILO (Holding in Leu Of) Approach

During a HILO approach, how many orbits are you authorized to do?

One unless specifically requested for more

Low altitude approach procedures come in 2 types, which are what?

Course Reversal and Procedure Track

Which type of Low Altitude Approach Procedure takes the aircraft away from the airfield and travels a return path back to the airfield?

Course Reversal

Which type of turn is protected airspace and clear of obstacles allowing the aircraft to descend and configure for landing?

Course Reversal (Procedure Turn and HILO)

What is shown with a bold line with arrow markings and numerical course indicators, showing the specific path over the ground that you are expected to fly while providing obstacle clearance and time to slow/configure?

Procedure Track

What type of approach is an instrument maneuver used to reverse direction and to establish an aircraft inbound on the intermediate or final approach course; identified by a "barb" symbol?

Procedure Turn Approach

There are 4 reasons to not execute a Procedure Turn, which are what?

1. Radar Vectors to Final Approach Course provided

2. Conducting Time Approach from Holding

3. Cleared by ATC for Straight in

4. "NoPT" symbol depicted

When reading the Approach Plate, the "Barb" symbol for a Procedure Turn indicates what?

Which side of the outbound course to complete the turn

What are the options to complete the Procedure Turn?

45/180, racetrack pattern, or teardrop procedure turn as long as within the "remain within" distance.

Which type of approach is one where the inbound turn point is not designated by DME and instead, the turn to the inbound course is started upon reaching a specific altitude?

Non-DME Teardrop Approach

When a Penetration turn altitude for a Non-DME Teardrop Approach is not published, the turn is started at an altitude halfway between the ___ and ____ altitudes

IAF and FAF

Which type of penetration is generally initiated away from the IAF and requires a penetration turn and the interception of an inbound course?

Teardrop Penetration

Where are Restrictions to Approaches located on an Approach plate?

Located under the Approach's Frequency at the Top Left of the Chart or in the middle of the approach plate in a large font size

How can you identify an IAF on the Plan View of the Approach Plate?

Will have "IAF" or "(IAF)" above the name

What section displays runways, taxiways, airport lighting, control tower, vertical obstructions, and the field elevation in MSL on the Approach Plate; and where is it located on the Approach Plate?

Airport Sketch, bottom right of the approach plate

What is the penetration airspeed range for the T-6A?

200-250 (use 200 if only one choice)

When should you configure for Basic Approach Configuration (BAC) during a Non-Precision Approach from the FAF?

3-5 NM

Precision approaches are also known as ___ while Nonprecision approaches are also known as ___ and ______________ approaches

PAR, ASR, PAR w/o GS

Non-precision approaches such as ASR and PSR w/o GS provide ________ and ________ information only

course, range

What is the difference between Precision Approaches and Non-Precision Approaches?

Precision approaches provide glideslope information while Non-Precision does not.

During a PAR approach, who directs the aircraft all the way to a position from which a safe landing can be made?

Controller

3 multiple choice options

ASR or PAR w/o GS approach is a non-precision approach in which the controller provides __________ ___________ guidance only

Azimuth navigational

How will you know you are at the MAP during a Non-Precision (ASR/PAR without GS) approach?

GCA Controller will advise you

What type of approach is used when experiencing heading indicator malfunctions?

No-Gyro Approach

While performing a No-Gyro Approach, what type of turns should you be doing?

Standard Rate Turns until instructed by ATC to make half-standard rate turns

During a No-Gyro ASR Approach, can you do half-standard rate turns?

Only when cleared by ATC to do so

Fill in the blank for the following categories of Aircraft regarding Circling speed:

1. Category A: Less than ____ knots

2. Category B: ______ to _____ knots

3. Category C: ______ to _____ knots

4. Category D: ______ to _____ knots

5. Category E: _____ knots or more

1. 91

2. 91 to 121

3. 121 to 141

4. 141 to 166

5. 166

Published Circling minimums provide _____ feet of obstacle clearance when pilots remain within the appropriate area of protection

300

If flying an ILS (Precision) approach, the final segment of the approach begins at the ________________ and ends at the DA

Glideslope Intercept

For many ILS or LOC approaches, you must start backup timing where and why?

At the Non-Precision FAF (not GS intercept) to identify the non-precision MAP (if there is a timing block on the approach plate), in case of an ILS Glideslope fail during appraoch

If executing an ILS approach and Glideslope indications fail, revert to __________ procedures and minimums

localizer

Regarding Altitude restrictions, if 6000 is ABOVE the line, what does that mean?

Remain at or above 6000 (minimum altitude)

Regarding Altitude restrictions, if 5000 is below the line, what does that mean?

Remain at or below 5000 (maximum altitude)

Regarding Altitude Restrictions, if 6000 and 5000 are sandwiched together by two lines, what does that mean?

Remain within 6000 to 5000 (Mandatory Block Altitude)

Regarding Altitude Restrictions, if 2000 is sandwiched together by two lines, what does that mean?

Remain AT 2000 (mandatory altitude)

The final approach fix (FAF) on a non-precision approach can be identified on the profile view by what?

Maltese cross (x)

The final approach fix (FAF) on a precision approach can be identified on the profile view by what?

Lightning Bolt (Glideslope Intercept Altitude)

When would you descend below the Minimum Descent Altitude (MDA) and transition for a landing?

If Runway Environment is in sight and safe landing can be made

If safe landing cannot be made and runway environment is not in sight, execute a ________________

missed approach

If a VDP is published on a plate, the aircraft should remain at ____ until reaching the ____

MDA, VDP

What should always be used, when available, as a backup on DME approaches in case the DME should fail?

Timing

For descent, the FAA requires you to reduce airspeed to _______ KIAS or less when below 10,000' MSL unless NATOPS approved higher speed ofr normal ops below 10,000'

250

According to FAA, for a procedure turn, what is left to the discretion of the pilot?

Point in the turn to be commenced, type of turn, and rate of turn

How do you calculate for VDP?

1. HAT divided by (Approach Angle x 100)

2. Use that number and add or subtract from the DME at MAP

How do you know when to ADD or SUBTRACT the DME at MAP from the VDP equation?

If NAVAID is behind the VDP, you subtract. If NAVAID is ahead of the VDP, you add.

When do you begin timing for 1 minute on an a procedure turn?

Outbound when over or abeam the IAF (Whichever occurs first) or if you can't determine the abeam position, start timing when wings level outbound

If a descent is necessary at the IAF from a published altitude or ATC assigned altitude, the descent must not begin until when?

crossing over the IAF or abeam the fix and proceeding outbound

Within how many minutes to the IAF you will direct the IP to slow to 150?

3 minutes

What four suffixes are used to identify key waypoints during a GPS approach?

I (IAF), F (FAF), M (MAP), and H (MAP Holding Fix)

The GPS should transition automatically from the ENR-LEG mode to the APR ARM Mode when the aircraft is within ____ NM from the airport and an approach is ________ in the GPS

30, loaded

The ENR-LEG (Enroute) mode has a CDI scale of +/- ____ NM

5

The Approach-Arm Mode has a CDI scale of +/- _____ NM

1

The Approach Active mode has a CDI scale of +/- ___ NM and turns from blue to ______ when ___ NM prior to FAF

0.3, green, 2

T/F: Do not descend from the FAF if the GPS has not switched to APR ACT (Active) mode

True

1 multiple choice option

When flying on radar vectors, you should attempt contact with the controlling agency if no transmissions are received for approximately ______ while being vectored on final, ____ on ASR/PAR without GS final, or _____ on PAR Final

1 minute, 15 seconds, 5 seconds

If weather is AT LEAST 500' above MVA AND 3 miles visibility, you shall intercept at least ___ mile from FAF at a max of ___ degree intercept or At least ___ miles from FAF at a max of ___ degree intercept

1, 20, 3, 30

If weather is LESS THAN 500' above MVA OR less than 3 miles visibility, you shall intercept ____ miles from FAF at a max of ___ degree intercept

3, 30

How can you tell if a LOC Approach will provide DME info?

The frequency in the top left will have a Channel assigned to it

If you are looking at a LOC BC approach, what must you set in the CDI?

The front course.

What is the descent rate for non precision and precision?

Non Precision is 800-1000 fpm while Precision is 400-600 fpm

In case of an ILS failure, transition to ________ only

Localizer

You may NOT descend below Localizer minimums if more than _____ dot below glideslope or ____ dots above glideslope; or a ________ failure occurs

1, 2, glideslope

What is the BAC (Basic Approach Configuration) for the T-6A?

Gears Down, Flaps TO, 110 KIAS

Aircraft (shall/shall not) descend from the FAF altitude to MDA/DA until the aircraft is configured to land

shall not

T/F: Missed Approach or Climb-Out instructions issued by Approach Control or Tower supersede published instructions.

True

What do you do to set up NAVAID for the ILS?

D LIDS check

What is in the D LIDS check?

1. DME Hold (if required)

2. Localizer Set

3. Inbound course set on CDI

4. Display set to VOR (will change automatically ito LOC)

5. Speed to fly downwind 200 KIAS

You will execute a Missed Approach at the MAP and if what three reasons?

Landing environment not in sight, not in safe position to land, or directed by ATC

If there is a DA or Climb required, do you level off?

No

If missed approach, lost comms, and/or climb-out instructions are not provided by ATC, what should you do?

Ask instructor if these instructions are required

Which approach begins when checking in with the controller/GCA?

ASR

Which approach begins when within range of precision radar and contact is established with final controller?

PAR

The MAP on a PAR occurs at ____ or when _________ tells you, whichever comes first

DA, controller

On an ILS/PAR, the Decision Altitude or DH is the ______

MAP

Bright approach lights suddenly appearing on final approach can give the impression of being (low/high)

high

Breaking out of the weather and seeing a wider runway than "normal" can give the impression of being __________ to the ground and _____ glidepath, resulting to shallow the descent rate and flare early or high

closer, below

Breaking out of the weather and seeing a runway narrower than "normal" can give the impression of being ____________ from the ground and ______ glide path, resulting in increasing the descent rate and flare late

further away, above

Spatial Orientation bluntly defined as "not knowing which way is up" due to not having a distinct _______________________

outside horizon

How do you combat spatial d and visual illusions in flight?

Maintain the instrument cross-check and scan until sufficient reliable outside references are available to proceed visually

When you are at the MDA/DA and have visual with the runway, can you descend to land?

Yes

What does MDA stand for?

Minimum Descent Altitude

What does HAT stand for?

Height Above Touchdown

T/F: When executing your Missed Approach, set up to intercept your missed approach runway and not any landing runway

True