Domain I-V Quizzes

What is the approximate 24 hour decay factor for Tl-201 (t1/2 = 3.044 days)?

a. 0.2
b. 0.4
c. 0.6
d. 0.8
e. 1.0

d

What property of atoms do isotones share with each other?

a. number of protons
b. number of neutrons
c. number of electrons
d. atomic weight

b

What is the anti-particle for an electron?

a. proton
b. neutron
c. deuteron
d. positron

d

An excess of protons in an atom’s nucleus can lead to which mode of decay(s)?

a. alpha
b. beta minus
c. beta plus and electron capture
d. isometric transition

c

Which of the following properly describes an alpha particle?

a. two protons and two neutrons
b. two protons and two electrons
c. two protons and two positrons
d. two protons

a

Which of the following does NOT affect the energy of a Bremsstrahlung photon?

a. the energy of the incident particle
b. the energy of the affected electron
c. the atomic number of the absorber
d. the incident particle’s distance to the absorber nucleus

b

What does the quantity ^-λt represent?

a. decay factor
b. decay constant
c. half-life
d. half value layer

a

An incident photon with 200 keV of energy undergoes Compton scatter. The ejected Compton electron had a binding energy of 30 keV and the incident photon retains 130 keV. How much energy does the ejected electron have after it leaves the atom?

a. 40 keV
b. 70 keV
c. 100 keV
d. 160 keV

a

Which of the following is the most desirable interaction for image production?

a. Compton scatter
b. pair production
c. photoelectric effect
d. Auger production

c

Which of the following detector types best describe how a dose calibrator measures radiation?

a. solid scintillator
b. liquid scintillator
c. semi-conductor
d. gas-filled detector

d

Which of the following signs are early deterministic effects of radiation indicating exposure to more than 1Sv or 100rem?

a. vomiting
b. gastrointestinal syndrome
c. CNS or cerebrovascular syndrome
d. cancer

a

To which principle of ALARA (As Low As Reasonably Achievable) does the inverse square law apply?

a. time
b. distance
c. shielding
d. all of the above

b

What is the trigger level for removable contamination when performing a wipe test?

a. 1000dpm/100cm2
b. 2000dpm/100cm2
c. 100dpm/200cm2
d. 100dpm/2000cm2

b

Which gas filled detector is best for measuring patient radiation levels during therapy?

a. ionization chamber (cutie pie)
b. Geiger Mueller detector
c. dose calibrator
d. well counter

a

What is the maximum dose limit allowed to the embryo/fetus for the entire pregnancy of declared pregnant worker?

a. 50rem (500mSV)
b. 15rem (150mSv)
c. 0.1rem (1mSv)
d. 0.5rem (5mSv)

d

Which type of shielding is best for beta emitting radionuclides?

a. plastic
b. lead
c. tungsten
d. no shielding is necessary

a

Which warning sign would be required for an area in which the radiation levels could result in an exposure of 15 mrem/hr at 30cm from the source?

a. restricted area
b. radioactive materials area
c. radiation area
d. high radiation area

c

A patient with undiagnosed Graves’ disease arrives for their thyroid exam. If the patient is administered the wrong radiopharmaceutical, which of the following is most likely to result in a medical event?

a. 25mCi TcO4-
b. 11mCi F18 FDG
c. 10.8mCi I-123 MIBG
d. 9mCi I-131

d

Decay in storage can only be used for isotopes that have a T ½ of less than: 

a. 80d
b. 96h
c. 120d
d. 10d

c

The radiation level at one meter for a Yellow II package should be:

a. n/a (equal to background)
b. ≤ 1 mrem/hr
c. ≤ 5 mrem/hr
d. ≤ 10 mrem/hr

b

Which of the following is a contraindication for the use of Regadenosine (Lexiscan®) in myocardial perfusion imaging? 

a. asthma
b. second or third-degree AV block without a pacemaker
c. hypertension
d. diabetes

b

Which agent is used as a reversal for vasodilators used in myocardial perfusion imaging?

a. dipyridamole
b. regadenosine
c. aminophylline
d. dobutamine

c

What is the appropriate dosage and administration protocol for Furosemide (Lasix®) in a kidney renogram?

a. 20 mg infused over 1-2 minutes
b. 40 mg (0.5 mg/kg in children) infused over 2-3 minutes
c. 50 mg (1 mg/kg in children) infused over 5 minutes
d. 60 mg infused over 3-4 minutes 

b

Which H2 blocker is administered as 300 mg in 100 mL D5W over 20 minutes before radiopharmaceutical administration in a Meckel’s diverticulum study? 

a. cimetidine
b. ranitidine
c. famotidine
d. pentagastrin

a

What is the maximum dose of Enaloprilat that should be administered for a kidney renogram? 

a. 2.0 mg
b. 2.5 mg
c. 3.0 mg
d. 3.5 mg

b

Which agent is used to decrease peristalsis and allow pooling of 99mTc-pertechnetate in a Meckel’s diverticulum study?

a. cimetidine
b. glucagon
c. famotidine
d. pentagastrin

b

Which of the following is not a side effect of Dipyridamole (Persantine®) used in myocardial perfusion imaging? 

a. chest pain
b. nausea
c. flushing
d. hyperglycemia

d

Which medication is used as a premedication to prevent nausea and vomiting during Lutathera therapy?

a. ondansetron
b. morphine
c. lidocaine
d. Lugol’s solution

a

What is the proper dosing protocol for Dobutamine when used with Atropine in myocardial perfusion imaging? 

a. 10 μg /Kg gradually increasing to 50 mg/kg 
b. 5 μg /Kg gradually increasing to 40 μg /kg/min every 3 minutes 
c. 20 μg /Kg initially followed by 5 μg /Kg every 5 minutes 
d. 40 μg /Kg in a single dose followed by 5 μg Atropine 

b

Which oral contrast media has the highest atomic number and is used for abdominal CT scans? 

a. VoLumen® 
b. Omnipaque® 
c. Gastrografin® 
d. Telebrix® 

a

Which of the following is considered a radiochemical impurity?

a. Mo99 in the Tc eluate
b. Al3+ in the Tc eluate
c. Free TcO4- in a kit preparation
d. Presence of a firm opaque gel clot

c

Which of the following solutions is/are acceptable for eluting the Sr82/Rb82 generator?

a. 0.9% Sodium Chloride, USP
b. Ringer’s Lactate solution
c. Methylethylketone (MEK)
d. A and B only

a

What is the appropriate dose of CCK (Kinevac) to be administered to a patient?

a. 0.04mg/kg
b. 0.02mg/mL
c. 0.02ug/kg
d. 0.4mg/mL

c

Which of the following tests is used to determine the amount of Al3+ in the Tc99m eluate?

a. colorimetric spot test
b. lead shield test
c. instant thin layer chromatography
d. bacterial endotoxin test

a

Which patient does not require an MAA dose particle reduction?

a. pediatric
b. pneumonectomy
c. pulmonary hypertension
d. prolapsed valve

d

How many injections of Thyrogen does a patient get prior to RAI administration?

a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4

b

Which of the following are the allowable limits of Sr82 and Sr85 in the Rb82 eluate set by the NRC?

a. 0.1uCi Sr82/mCi Rb 82; 0.01uCi Sr 85/mCi Rb82
b. 0.02uCi Sr82/mCi Rb82; 0.2uCi Sr85/mCi Rb82 
c. 0.2mCi Sr82/uCi Rb82; 0.02mCi Sr85/uCi Rb82
d. 0.01mCi Sr82/uCi Rb82; 0.1mCi Sr85/uCi Rb 82

b

Which of the following is the correct dose for Dipyridamole?

a. 0.140mg/kg/min
b. 0.4mg/5mL
c. 0.04mg/kg
d. 0.56mg/kg 

d

Which agent is considered a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor?

a. Tagamet
b. Aggrenox
c. Diamox
d. Lugol's solution

c

Which of the following is the prescription for a specific nuclide and administration route?

a. informed consent
b. written directive
c. doctor’s note
d. referring physician’s orders

b

Which of the following well counter QC procedures requires a NIST tracible source? 

a. uniformity
b. accuracy
c. linearity
d. geometry

b

Survey meters use the same phase of matter (solid, liquid, or gas) as which of the following radiation detection devices?

a. gamma camera
b. well counter
c. thyroid probe
d. dose calibrator

d

Which of the following dose calibrator QC procedures must be done at least quarterly? 

a. linearity
b. constancy
c. geometry
d. accuracy

a

Bar phantoms are a measure of which two of the following?

a. resolution & uniformity
b. uniformity & constancy
c. constancy & resolution
d. linearity & resolution

d

Jaszczak phantoms are a measure of which two of the following?

a. resolution & uniformity
b. uniformity & constancy
c. constancy & resolution
d. linearity & resolution

a

What does a PET normalization scan do?

a. checks uniformity of detector blocks
b. checks coincidence circuits
c. corrects sensitivity across detector blocks
d. corrects the center of rotation

c

Assuming a 1.0 analog/pre-acquisition zoom, which of the following matrices generates the smallest pixel size?

a. 64 × 64
b. 128 × 128
c. 256 × 256
d. 512 × 512

d

Which of the following systems store nuclear medicine images for later retrieval? 

a. PACS
b. HIS
c. RIS
d. WLAN

a

Point of care glucose monitors typically get blood through which of the following methods?

a. IV catheter
b. butterfly needle
c. finger stick
d. straight stick

c

Which part of a xenon gas delivery system removes moisture from the air going into the machine? 

a. bacteria filter
b. dessicant
c. activated charcoal trap
d. soda-lime trap

b

Liver-lung shunt mapping studies are done before administration of what radiotherapy?

a. Y-90 microspheres (SIRshperes or Theraspheres)
b. Sr-89 Strontium chloride
c. Ra-223 dichloride
d. I-131 Sodium iodide
e. Sm-153 EDTMP

a

How long after tracer administration does imaging begin for the localization of Meckel’s diverticulum?

a. immediately
b. 10 minutes
c. 30 minutes
d. 60 minutes
e. 180 minutes

b

One advantage of the in vivo radiolabeling method is that:

a. it has the best labeling efficiency
b. no manipulation of blood samples outside the body is required
c. all of the circulating red blood cells are radiolabeled
d. it is the least efficient at radiolabeling red blood cells
e. it can cause free pertechnetate which may obscure the image

b

The result of a patient’s gastroesophageal reflux study was calculated to be 8%. This finding:

a. is normal
b. is consistent with reflux
c. suggests the study should be repeated
d. suggests the binder was not positioned properly
e. suggests the given solution was less than 300 mL

b

A patient is suffering from an epistaxis episode. All of the following are appropriate steps to mitigate the bleeding except:

a. Instruct the patient to sit upright and lean they body and head slightly forward
b. Provide them with a tissue or damp washcloth
c. Instruct them to breathe through their mouth
d. Instruct them to pinch their nostrils for at least 5 minutes

d

To determine the patency of a Leveen shunt, the radiopharmaceutical is administered into:

a. a vein
b. the circle of Willis
c. the intrathecal space
d. the shunt tubing
e. the peritoneal cavity

e

When a star artifact is seen on a γ camera image, it can be lessened by switching to a(n):

a. electronic collimator
b. lower energy collimator
c. higher energy collimator
d. higher sensitivity collimator

c

Patient preparation for I-131 NaI therapy for thyroid cancer includes all of the following except:

a. ruling out pregnancy
b. diet restrictions
c. reviewing isolation requirements
d. discontinuing breast feeding
e. administering oral potassium iodide

e

All of the following are adverse effects of amino acids except:

a. hypoglycemia
b. abdominal pain
c. headache
d. hyperkalemia

a

Recombinant human TSH (Thyrogen) is administered:

a. intravenously
b. orally
c. topically
d. intramuscularly

d

Which therapeutic radionuclide is likely to pose the greatest radiation exposure risk to the general public? 

a. Lu-177
b. I-131
c. Y-90
d. Ra-223

b

The thyroid of a fetus begins concentrating iodine at what stage in gestation? 

a. 4-8 weeks
b. 10-12 weeks
c. 20-24 weeks
d. 30-32 weeks

b

Treatment for Graves’ disease using a standard dose approach would most likely fall in the range of:  

a. 1-5 mCi
b. 5-15 mCi
c. 15-30 mCi
d. 30-50 mCi

b

For dose optimization, an alternative method to thyroid hormone withdrawal prior to I-131 therapy is: 

a. Liothyronine/Levothyroxine substitution 
b. Planning the I-131 dose based on patient’s body weight 
c. Planning the I-131 dose based on patient’s thyroid gland weight 
d. Thyrogen injections

d

Which of the following somatostatin imaging analogs has the highest radiation burden and an inferior ability to detect lesions? 

a. In-111 octreoscan
b. Cu-64 dotatate
c. Ga-68 dotatate
d. Ga-68 dotatoc

a

The amino acid infusion administered at the beginning of Lutathera therapy is required for:  

a. adequate delivery of radiation dose to tumors
b. prophylactic prevention of nausea and vomiting
c. prophylactic prevention of nausea and vomiting
d. protection of the kidneys

d

Ra-223 Xofigo relies on which type of emission to deliver its therapy?  

a. alpha
b. beta
c. gamma
d. x-ray

a

The method of radiopharmaceutical localization for Lu-177 Vipivotide tetraxetan (Pluvicto) therapy is:  

a. active transport
b. receptor binding
c. chemisorption
d. capillary blockade

b

Strontium-89 is an analog of:

a. calcium
b. potassium
c. phosphorous
d. collagen

a

A typical dose of resin Y-90 SIR spheres contains how many microspheres: 

a. 1-20 thousand
b. 1-20 million
c. 40-80 thousand
d. 40-80 million

d

What enzyme traps F-18 FDG inside a cell? 

a. hexokinase
b. GLUT-1
c. glucoso-6-phosphatase
d. mannose triflate

a

Which of these blood glucose levels will NOT allow you to inject FDG?  

a. 170 mg/dL
b. 135 mg/dL
c. 225 mg/dL
d. 120 mg/dL

c

What kind of analog is Ga-68 dotatate or Cu-64 dotatate? 

a. neuroendocrine
b. somatostatin
c. estrogen
d. cholecystikinin

b

Which organ normally has high uptake on an F-18 FDG scan? 

a. cortex of the brain
b. liver
c. kidneys
d. all of the above

d

What time should F-18 FDG imaging be performed for lung cancer indication? 

a. 30 minutes
b. 60 minutes
c. 120 minutes
d. 240 minutes

b

What is an appropriate indication for F-18 fluoroestrodiol imaging? 

a. metastatic prostate cancer
b. neuroendocrine cancer
c. initial staging lung cancer
d. ER+ breast cancer

d

What is the mechanism of localization for Rb-82 Chloride?  

a. passive diffusion
b. active transport Na/K pump
c. receptor binding
d. chemisoption

b

Which of these is NOT a Beta-Amyloid brain imaging agent? 

a. F-18 Florbetapir (Amyvid®) 
b. F-18 Flutametamol (Vizamyl®) 
c. F-18 Florbetaben (Neuraceq®) 
d. F-18 Flortaucipir (Tauvid®) 

d

Which of these radiopharmaceuticals is used only for Prostate cancer specific scans? 

a. F-18 NaF 
b. F-18 Fluorodopa  
c. F-18 Pyl piflufolastat 
d. F-18 Fluoroestradiol 

c

What is the appropriate time frame for imaging post injection of F-18 Fluciclovine? 

a. 3-5 minutes
b. 30-50 minutes
c. 60-90 minutes
d. 80 minutes

a