Pharmacology II Exam 2 Review Flashcards

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100 question and answer flashcards covering Opioid Analgesics, Sedatives & Tranquilizers, Local Anesthetics, Euthanizing Agents, Anticonvulsants, and Behavioral Drugs based on lecture notes.

Last updated 2:39 AM on 6/18/26
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103 Terms

1
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What are natural alkaloids like morphine and codeine derived from the poppy plant called?

Opiates

2
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What term refers to all synthetic and natural agents that act on opioid receptors?

Opioids

3
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What are the primary clinical uses of opioid analgesics?

Analgesia, sedation, chemical restraint, antitussive, and antidiarrheal

4
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Through which receptor is the primary dose-limiting toxicity of respiratory depression mediated?

μ\mu (Mu) receptor

5
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What are the effects of binding to the μ\mu (Mu) receptor?

Excellent analgesia, respiratory depression, decreased GI motility, euphoria or dysphoria, and species-specific sedation or excitement

6
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What are the effects of binding to the κ\kappa (Kappa) receptor?

Moderate analgesia, sedation, decreased GI motility, and diuresis

7
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What is the clinical significance of the δ\delta (Delta) receptor in veterinary medicine?

Limited clinical significance, but it modulates μ\mu and κ\kappa activity and tolerance development

8
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Which drugs are classified as Schedule II full μ\mu agonists?

Morphine, Hydromorphone, Methadone, Fentanyl, and Hydrocodone

9
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Which ultra-potent Schedule II opioids are used for wildlife and reversed by Naltrexone?

Etorphine (M-99M\text{-}99) and Carfentanil

10
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What is the control schedule and receptor activity of Buprenorphine?

Schedule III; μ\mu partial agonist and κ\kappa antagonist

11
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What is the control schedule and receptor activity of Butorphanol?

Schedule IV; κ\kappa agonist and μ\mu partial antagonist

12
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Which antidiarrheal agent is a Schedule V opioid?

Lomotil

13
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What is the duration of action for Morphine?

14 h1\text{--}4\text{ h}

14
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What adverse effect can occur with IV administration of Morphine due to histamine release?

Hypotension

15
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What are the species-dependent CNS effects of Morphine?

Dogs sedate well; cats and horses experience excitation

16
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How does the potency of Hydromorphone compare to Morphine?

Approximately 7×\text{Approximately } 7 \times more potent

17
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Why is Hydromorphone preferred in cats?

It requires limited glucuronidation

18
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How does the potency of Fentanyl compare to Morphine?

Approximately 100×\text{Approximately } 100 \times more potent

19
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What is the duration of a Fentanyl patch in dogs versus cats?

3 days3\text{ days} in dogs; 5 days5\text{ days} in cats

20
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Which opioid has NMDA antagonist activity, making it ideal for neuropathic and orthopedic pain?

Methadone

21
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How does the potency of Hydrocodone compare to Morphine?

Approximately 6×\text{Approximately } 6 \times more potent

22
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What is the primary clinical use of Hydrocodone?

Antitussive

23
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How does the potency of Buprenorphine compare to Morphine?

25×25 \times more potent

24
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What is the duration of action for Buprenorphine?

48 h4\text{--}8\text{ h} (longest DOA of any opioid)

25
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What form of Buprenorphine is administered q24h SQ to cats?

Simbadol

26
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How does the potency of Butorphanol compare to Morphine?

57×5\text{--}7 \times more potent

27
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What is the duration of action for Butorphanol in horses?

3090 min30\text{--}90\text{ min}

28
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Which non-controlled drug is a κ\kappa agonist and μ\mu antagonist used for mild-moderate pain?

Nalbuphine

29
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What is the primary μ\mu, κ\kappa, δ\delta antagonist used for opioid reversal?

Naloxone (Narcan)

30
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Why is renarcinization typically required when using Naloxone?

Naloxone has a shorter duration of action than most agonists

31
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What are the three mechanisms of action of Tramadol?

Weak μ\mu agonist (active metabolite), serotonin reuptake inhibitor, and noradrenergic reuptake inhibitor

32
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What is a major risk of combining Tramadol with SSRIs or SNRIs?

Serotonin syndrome

33
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What is the most common opioid given via the epidural route, lasting up to 24 h24\text{ h}?

Morphine

34
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How do opioids affect body temperature in dogs versus cats/horses?

Dogs pant (lower set point); cats/horses experience hyperthermia (higher set point)

35
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How do opioids affect GI motility?

Initial defecation followed by decreased motility leading to constipation or ileus risk

36
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Are there any FDA approved opioids for food animals?

No

37
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What is the MOA of Phenothiazines like Acepromazine?

Dopamine (D2D_2) antagonist in the CNS

38
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Does Acepromazine provide analgesia?

No

39
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What cardiovascular side effect is caused by the α1\alpha_1 blockade of Acepromazine?

Vasodilation leading to hypotension

40
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Why should Acepromazine be avoided in stallions?

Risk of paraphimosis

41
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How does Acepromazine affect red blood cell count?

Decreases PCV via splenic sequestration

42
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What is the MOA of Azaperone?

D2D_2 (also D1D_1, 5-HT5\text{-HT}, α-1\alpha \text{-}1, and histamine) receptor antagonist

43
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What are the components of the 'BAM' protocol in wildlife?

Butorphanol, Azaperone, and Medetomidine

44
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What is the MOA of Alpha-2 Agonists?

Presynaptic α2\alpha_2 receptor stimulation in the dorsal horn of the spinal cord, decreasing norepinephrine release

45
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Rank the specific α2\alpha_2 agonists from most to least selective/potent.

Dexmedetomidine > Detomidine > Xylazine

46
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What are the cardiovascular effects of Alpha-2 Agonists?

Decreased HR (reflex bradycardia) and CO; initial hypertension followed by hypotension

47
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What is the effect of α2\alpha_2 agonists on blood glucose?

Hyperglycemia due to decreased insulin release

48
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Why are ruminants highly sensitive to Alpha-2 agonists?

They have a higher percentage of α2D\alpha_{2D} receptor subtypes

49
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Which Alpha-2 agonist is the small animal gold standard?

Dexmedetomidine (Dexdomitor)

50
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Which Alpha-2 agonist is FDA approved in horses and causes significant ataxia?

Detomidine (Dormosedan)

51
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What is the specific reversal agent for Dexmedetomidine?

Atipamezole (Antisedan)

52
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What is the preferred reversal for Xylazine in ruminants?

Tolazoline

53
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What are the target agonists for Yohimbine reversal?

Xylazine and Detomidine

54
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What is the MOA of Benzodiazepines?

Potentiate GABA-AGABA\text{-}A receptor activity causing hyperpolarization

55
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Do Benzodiazepines provide analgesia?

No

56
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Which Benzodiazepine precipitates when mixed with other drugs due to its propylene glycol base?

Diazepam

57
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Which water-soluble Benzodiazepine is preferred for smoother induction in small animals?

Midazolam

58
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What is the components of Telazol?

Tiletamine and Zolazepam

59
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What is the reversal agent for Benzodiazepines?

Flumazenil

60
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What is the MOA of Guaifenesin?

Central-acting skeletal muscle relaxant

61
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What are the three components of the 'Triple Dip' (GKX) for TIVA?

Guaifenesin, Ketamine, and Xylazine

62
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What is the withdrawal period for Guaifenesin in food animals (meat and milk)?

3 days3\text{ days} for meat; 48 hours48\text{ hours} for milk

63
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What is the MOA of Local Anesthetics?

Block voltage-gated Na+Na^+ channels to prevent depolarization and action potential propagation

64
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In what order are sensations lost during local anesthesia (differential blockade)?

Pain, then temperature, then touch, then pressure, then motor function

65
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What chemical property of local anesthetics determines their onset of action?

pKapKa (Closer to physiologic pH means faster onset)

66
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Which class of local anesthetics includes Procaine and Tetracaine and has an increased allergy risk?

Esters

67
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Which class of local anesthetics includes Lidocaine and Bupivacaine and undergoes hepatic metabolism?

Amides

68
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What is the onset and duration of action for Lidocaine?

Onset: 12 min1\text{--}2\text{ min}; Duration: 12 h1\text{--}2\text{ h}

69
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Which local anesthetic is also used as a Class IB anti-arrhythmic?

Lidocaine

70
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What is the onset and duration of action for Bupivacaine?

Onset: 510 min5\text{--}10\text{ min}; Duration: 48 h4\text{--}8\text{ h}

71
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What is the primary danger of administering Bupivacaine intravenously?

Cardiotoxicity (ventricular arrhythmias)

72
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Which local anesthetic is similar to Lidocaine but produces less tissue irritation in horses?

Mepivacaine

73
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Which local anesthetics are used for ophthalmic purposes?

Proparacaine and Tetracaine

74
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What is the treatment for severe systemic toxicity (CNS/CV) from local anesthetics?

Supportive care and Intralipid therapy

75
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Why is Epinephrine (1:200,0001:200,000) added to local anesthetics?

Vasoconstriction decreases absorption and increases the duration of action

76
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Why is Bicarbonate added to local anesthetic formulations?

It increases the percentage of non-ionized drug for faster onset (especially with Lidocaine)

77
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What is the MOA of Pentobarbital sodium for euthanasia?

Potentiates GABA-AGABA\text{-}A activity leading to hyperpolarization and CNS shutdown

78
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What are the primary target events in euthanasia following CNS depression?

Respiratory arrest followed by cardiac arrest

79
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Which electrolyte is used to cause asystole only after deep anesthesia or unconsciousness?

Potassium Chloride (KCl)

80
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What agent is acceptable for euthanasia in fish and amphibians?

MS-222 (Tricaine Methanesulfonate)

81
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How is death confirmed after euthanasia?

Absence of heartbeat and respiration for more than 2 min2\text{ min} with fixed dilated pupils

82
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What are the common general targets for anticonvulsant drugs?

Increase GABAGABA activity, decrease Na+Na^+ or Ca2+Ca^{2+} channel activity, and decrease glutamate release

83
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Which drugs are used for acute seizure control or status epilepticus?

Diazepam and Midazolam

84
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What is the drug of first choice for chronic seizure control in dogs and cats?

Phenobarbital

85
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How long does it take Phenobarbital to reach steady-state plasma concentration?

23 weeks2\text{--}3\text{ weeks}

86
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What is the half-life of Phenobarbital in dogs versus cats?

Dogs: 2 days2\text{ days}; cats: 1 day1\text{ day}

87
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What is the toxic risk to the liver with Phenobarbital use?

Hepatotoxicity and superficial necrolytic dermatitis (hepatocutaneous disease)

88
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How many milligrams are in one grain of Phenobarbital?

65 mg65\text{ mg}

89
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What is the MOA of Potassium Bromide (KBr)?

Hyperpolarizes neurons via chloride (ClCl^-) channel competition

90
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How is Potassium Bromide eliminated, and why is this useful?

Renal elimination; it is safe for pets with liver disease

91
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Why is Potassium Bromide avoided in cats?

It can cause feline respiratory signs resembling asthma

92
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What is the MOA of Levetiracetam (Keppra)?

Binds SV2ASV2A (synaptic vesicle protein) to decrease neurotransmitter release

93
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Why is Levetiracetam the drug of choice for hepatic or refractory epileptics?

It has minimal hepatic metabolism and rapid onset

94
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What is the MOA of Zonisamide?

Blocks Na+Na^+ and T-type Ca2+Ca^{2+} channels to decrease repetitive firing

95
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What is a specific contraindication for Zonisamide?

Sulfonamide hypersensitivity (it is sulfa-based)

96
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What is the MOA of SSRIs like Fluoxetine?

Selective serotonin (5-HT5\text{-HT}) reuptake inhibition

97
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What are the clinical uses for Fluoxetine?

Separation anxiety, urine spraying, aggression, and compulsive behaviors

98
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What is the MOA of TCAs like Clomipramine and Amitriptyline?

Block norepinephrine (NENE) and serotonin (5-HT5\text{-HT}) reuptake; also provide anticholinergic and antihistamine effects

99
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Which TCA is used for canine OCD and separation anxiety?

Clomipramine

100
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Which TCA is used for urine-marking and feline interstitial cystitis?

Amitriptyline