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Use the atomic mass units of the elements to determine and arrange the substances given below that has the most molecular mass to the least molecular mass.
SO2
CH4
NH3
H2O
Answer: SO2 > H20 > NH3 > CH4
The molecular mass of a substance is calculated as follows:
Molecular Mass = (Number of atoms) X (atomic mass)
The chemical formula indicates the number and type of atoms, and from the table, the atomic masses of the elements can be used to determine the molecular mass.
Thus the molecular mass for the substances given will be:
SO2 =(1)X(32) +12)X16) = 64
H2O =(2) X11) +(1)X(16)=18
NH3 = (1) X14) +(3) X1) =17
CH4 = (1)X(12) +(4) X1)=16
What is the function of the pyloric sphincter?
A) To regulate the flow of food from the esophagus to the stomach
B) To control the release of bile into the small intestine
C) To prevent the backflow of fecal matter from the large intestine
D) To regulate the passage of chyme from the stomach to the small intestine
D
In cardiovascular physiology, diastole refers to the:
A. depolarization of the heart ventricles
B. relaxation phase between heart contractions
C. contraction of the cardiac muscle
D. pressure exerted on the walls of the blood vessels
B. Diastole is when the heart ventricles are relaxed, filling with blood. This phase follows systole, the contraction phase, and is crucial for ensuring that the heart chambers are adequately filled with blood before the next contraction.
How does a catalyst affect a chemical reaction?
a. It slows down the reaction by decreasing the activation energy.
b. It slows down the reaction by increasing the activation energy.
c. It speeds up the reaction by decreasing the activation energy.
d. It speeds up the reaction by increasing the activation energy
C
Which types of mutations can cause a frameshift in the genetic code, potentially altering the resulting protein? Select all that apply.
A. Substitution
B. Insertion
C. Deletion
D. Silent mutation
B, C
Which of the following hormones is not increased in plasma during dehydration?
a. Renin
b. Aldosterone
c. Erythropoietin
d. Antidiuretic hormone
C. During dehydration, secretions of antidiuretic hormone, renin, and aldosterone are increased in order to prevent further loss of water in the urine.
Erythropoietin is produced in the kidney in response to low levels of oxygen (hypoxia) in order to stimulate production of red blood cells.
In which segment of the nephron is glucose reabsorbed?
a. Proximal convoluted tubule
b. Collecting duct
c. Distal convoluted tubule
d. Loop of henle
A
What is the function of the colon?
A) form enzymes
B) form chyme
C) form bile
D) form feces
D
Which phenomenon begins with red blood cells releasing oxygen to other cells in the body?
A) Air conduction
B) Cellular respiration
C) Internal respiration
D) Pulmonary ventilation
C
Which of the following phases is the cell cycle part of?
A) Interphase
B) Metaphase
C) Prophase
D) Telophase
A
Which of the following types of RNA acts as an interpreter molecule?
A) mRNA
B) pre-mRNA
C) rRNA
D) tRNA
D
Which of the following best describes the primary function of phospholipids in cell membranes?
A) Forming bilayer structures that regulate the passage of molecules into and out of cells
B) Strong genetic information
C) Acting as enzymes to speed up chemical reactions
D) Providing energy for cellular processes
A
During the aging process, not all hormone levels decrease; some actually increase. Which of the following is a hormone that may increase as a person ages?
A) Cortisol
B) Insulin
C) Luteinizing
D) Thyroid
C
Which of the following is not true about reproductive hormones?
a. FSH (follicle-stimulating hormone) stimu- lates maturation of sperm and ovum.
b. LH (luteinizing hormone) is produced by the posterior pituitary gland.
c. LH (luteinizing hormone) stimulates ovulation and production of testosterone.
d. FSH (follicle-stimulating hormone) is pro- duced by the anterior pituitary gland.
B. FSH and LH, which primarily regulate function of male and female reproductive systems, are both produced by the anterior pituitary gland. FSH is involved in the maturation of sperm and ovum (follicles) and LH stimulates ovulation and production of testosterone.
Which of the following best describes the primary reproductive mechanism of bacterial cells?
A) Binary fission
B) Sexual reproduction
C) Budding
D) Spore formation
A
A person is diagnosed as having acidosis, a condition in which the blood pH is below 7.45. Which of the following does the doctor most likely conclude?
A) Too much carbon dioxide is found in the blood.
B) Highly oxygenated blood circulates through the body.
C) A blockage prevents blood from leaving the pulmonary artery.
D) The nasal cavity has a difficult time clearing particles from the air.
A
Which of the following is the primary advantage of using a light microscope?
A) It provides higher resolution and magnification than electron microscopes.
B) It allows for the observation of live microorganisms in real-time.
C) It can visualize viruses and subcellular organelles.
D) It is more complex and expensive than electron microscopes.
B
Which of the following types of bond forms between nitrogen and oxygen, and why?
A) Ionic, because electrons are shared
B) Covalent, because electrons are shared
C) Ionic, because electrons are transferred
D) Covalent, because electrons are transferred
B. Nitrogen and oxygen are both nonmetals, which means they will share electrons in a covalent bond.
Which of the following atoms is a cation?
A) 14 protons, 14 neutrons, 18 electrons
B) 34 protons, 45 neutrons, 36 electrons
C) 35 protons, 44 neutrons, 35 electrons
D) 82 protons, 125 neutrons, 78 electrons
D. Because it has more protons than electrons, this atom has a positive charge and can be classified as a cation. When a metal such as sodium reacts to become stable, it loses its valence electrons.
Which of the following muscles do circulating hormones stimulate?
A) Extension
B) Flexor
C) Skeletal
D) Smooth
D
Which of the following is classified as a type of acid-base reaction that produces a salt?
A) Combination
B) Decomposition
C) Hydrolysis
D) Neutralization
D
A spoonful of sugar is added to a hot cup of tea. All the sugar dissolves. Which of the following describes the resulting solution?
A) Saturated and homogeneous
B) Saturated and heterogeneous
C) Unsaturated and homogeneous
D) Unsaturated and heterogeneous
C
A histologist cracks open a tibia. While viewing the inside, what does he see?
A) Spongy bone
B) Proximal epiphysis
C) Soft tissue
D) Diaphysis
A
Why is AIDS a devastating disease?
A) It targets the cells in the lymphatic system that target pathogens.
B) It targets red blood cells.
C) It targets many different types of cells.
D) It targets respiratory lining cells.
A
Sometimes, people complain they have become sick because of a vaccination. Why is this impossible?
A) The pathogen is only viable for a short time.
B) The pathogen has been disabled by sterilization.
C) The pathogen was originally harmless.
D) The pathogen is dead.
D
A friend is changing the tire on her car, and the jack breaks. Her hand is caught under the car. A passerby notices, runs over, and lifts the car off her hand. Which type of intercellular signal has responded?
A) Receptors that indirectly alter membrane permeability
B) Receptors and G proteins
C) Receptors that alter the activity of enzymes
D) Receptors that directly alter membrane permeability
D. Nerve fiber endings bind to receptors that are part of the membrane channels for sodium ions to enable adrenaline to respond.
Most common types of skin cancer directly affect the _____ of the skin.
A) dermis
B) epidermis
C) sebaceous glands
D) subcutaneous layer
B
A dermatologist explains to a patient that a bacterial infection has affected the sebaceous glands. Which layer does this form of acne directly affect?
A) Stratum basale
B) Stratum lucidum
C) Stratum corneum
D) Stratum granulosum
C
The hypodermis is primarily composed of _____ tissue.
A) adipose
B) connective
C) epithelial
D) muscle
A
Which describes the primary function of hair?
A) Protect the surface of the skin
B) Prevent heat loss from the head
C) Fight off various microbial infections
D) Excrete toxic substances from the body
B
If a person wants to slow down the development of wrinkly skin, which of the following activities could be performed?
A) Improve mitotic epidermal cell division
B) Receive fat injections in the hypodermis
C) Add collagen to the stratum corneum layer
D) Slow down keratin production in the dermis
A
What is a key difference between passive and active immunity?
A. Passive immunity is acquired through vaccination, while active immunity is acquired through direct exposure to pathogens
B. Passive immunity provides immediate protection but is usually short-lived, whereas active immunity develops slowly but provides long-lasting protection
C. Active immunity is acquired by receiving antibodies from an external source, while passive immunity is developed through the body's own immune response to pathogens
D. Passive immunity involves the direct production of antibodies by the body, whereas active immunity involves the transfer of antibodies from another source
B
Which of the following molecules do the sweat glands produce a fluid containing?
A) fat
B) protein
C) salt
D) sugar
C
Which of the following describes a characteristic of the dermal layer?
A) Consist of melanocytes
B) Made of connective tissue
C) Consist of five distinct layers
D) Made of stratified epithelial tissue
B
What is a property of sebum?
A) Waterproofs the hair and skin
B) Made of primarily water and salt
C) Contains a large amount of epidermal cells
D) Releases keratin on top of the stratum corneum
A
Which layer of the skin contains nerve endings?
A) Dermis
B) Epidermis
C) Stratum basale
D) Subcutaneous tissue
A
Sweat that is released from the _____ during a period of anxiety must travel through the eccrine glands.
A) arm
B) scalp
C) forehead
D) groin area
C
A person seeks help from a dermatologist to reverse saggy, thin skin. What region of the skin does the dermatologist target for correction?
A) Dermal layer
B) Hypodermis layer
C) Stratum corneum
D) Stratum spinosum
B
Squamous cell carcinoma affects cells in the stratum _____.
A) basale
B) granulosum
C) lucidum
D) spinosum
D
A person jumps after touching a hot surface. Which layer of skin was responsible for stimulating the person's response?
A) Dermis
B) Hypodermis
C) Stratum basale
D) Stratum lucidum
A
During basal cell carcinoma, the epidermal cells in the stratum basale _____.
A) invade the dermis
B) form a waterproof layer
C) undergo mitosis normally
D) fill with a large amount of keratin
A
The cardiac sphincter opens into the _____.
A) gallbladder
B) liver
C) pancreas
D) stomach
D
Which of the following diseases causes localized inflammatory degeneration that causes the wall of the small intestine to thicken?
A) Peptic ulcers
B) Crohn's disease
C) Ulcerative colitis
D) Malabsorption syndrome
B
One of the symptoms of hepatitis that makes it dangerous is that it _____.
A) alters the blood content of the area
B) replaces dead liver cells with scar tissue
C) covers the damaged liver cells with adipose tissue
D) converts the area of dead liver cells into non-porous tissue
B
Which of the following organs maintains a healthy pH level when a person eats an orange?
A) Gallbladder
B) Liver
C) Pancreas
D) Tongue
C
Where does the majority of nutrient absorption begin in the digestive system?
A) Stomach
B) Esophagus
C) Large intestine
D) Small intestine
D
Blood Oxygen levels are most likely low when blood does which of the following?
A) leaves the aorta
B) fills the right atrium
C) reaches body tissues
D) flows through arteries
B
Which of the following enzymes breaks down proteins?
A) Amylase
B) Lactase
C) Pepsin
D) Sucrase
C
Which of the following types of tissues include cells of the immune system and of the blood?
A) Connective
B) Epithelial
C) Muscle
D) Neural
A
Which of the following body systems is the skeletal system most closely associated with when hematopoiesis happens?
A) Urinary system
B) Digestive system
C) Muscular system
D) Cardiovascular system
D
Which of the following are included in the male reproductive system?
A) the penis and epididymis
B) the vas deferens and uterus
C) the penis and Fallopian tubes
D) the penis, scrotum, and cervix
A
As soon as this invader enters the body, the body initiates immunological responses. Which of the following is the name of this invader?
A) Foreign particles
B) Pathogen
C) Toxin
D) Vaccine
B
What organ of the body compensates when a person's intake of vitamins decreases?
A) Appendix
B) Liver
C) Pancreas
D) Stomach
B
The diffusion of nutrients through the walls of the digestive system is critical to homeostasis in the body. The majority of this diffusion takes place in which of the following areas of the digestive system?
A) Large intestine
B) Colon
C) Liver
D) Small intestine
D
What is the first enzyme that functions in the digestive system?
A) Amylase
B) Lactase
C) Maltase
D) Sucrase
A
Which of the following is one of the primary functions of the large intestine?
A) To kill bacteria
B) To recycle water
C) To store excess fats
D) To reduce the amount of waste
B
Which of the following molecules is able to diffuse through the lining of the small intestine?
A) Glycerol
B) Peptides
C) Polypeptides
D) Fiber
A
An enzyme that is produced in the pancreas and secreted into the small intestine to complete the digestion of proteins is which of the following?
A) lactase
B) maltase
C) pepsin
D) peptidase
D
The pancreas is technically an organ of the exocrine system. How does it benefit the digestive system?
A) It secretes mucus.
B) It secretes glycogen.
C) It secretes hydrochloric acid.
D) It secretes digestive enzymes.
D
Which of the following is the correct path of food through the digestive system?
A) Oral cavity -> pharynx -> esophagus -> stomach -> small intestine -> large intestine
B) Oral cavity -> pharynx -> esophagus -> stomach -> liver -> small intestine -> large intestine
C) Oral cavity -> pharynx -> esophagus -> stomach -> liver -> pancreas -> small intestine -> large intestine
D) Oral cavity -> pharynx -> esophagus -> stomach -> liver -> gallbladder -> pancreas -> small intestine -> large intestine
A. Food does not pass through the liver, gallbladder, or pancreas.
Which of the following best describes the role of phospholipids in the cell membrane?
A. They store energy for the cell.
B. They create a semi-permeable barrier for the cell.
C. They catalyze chemical reactions within the membrane.
D. They provide structural support to the cell wall.
B
In what order does food pass through the parts of the small intestine?
A) Duodenum -> jejunum -> ileum
B) Duodenum -> ileum -> jejunum
C) Ileum -> jejunum -> duodenum
D) Jejunum -> duodenum -> ileum
A
Which forms a network around the alveoli to facilitate gas exchange?
A) Rib cage
B) Capillaries
C) Bronchioles
D) Epithelial cells
B
Which of the following statement is true regarding gas concentration of blood leaving the left side of the heart?
A) Oxygen levels are high.
B) Carbon dioxide levels are high.
C)Oxygen and carbon dioxide levels are low.
D) Oxygen and carbon dioxide levels are high.
A
What structure channels food to the esophagus and air to the trachea?
A) Bronchiole
B) Capillary
C) Larynx
D) Lung
C
Which body system plays a direct role in supplying oxygen to cells and eliminating carbon dioxide from cells?
A) Cardiovascular
B) Nervous
C) Respiratory
D) Urinary
A
Which of the following processes begins with red blood cells giving up oxygen to other cells in the body?
A) Air conduction
B) Cellular respiration
C) Internal respiration
D) Pulmonary ventilation
C
What process does the respiratory system use to facilitate gas exchange in and out of the lungs?
A) Diffusion
B) Exhalation
C) Inspiration
D) Ventilation
D
Directly after diffusion occurs in the lungs,
A) Air moves into the alveolar sacs.
B) Carbon dioxide is exhaled from the body.
C) Gases are transported by blood into circulation.
D) Cells pick up oxygen in exchange for carbon dioxide.
C
Which body system works with the respiratory system to aid in blood pH regulation?
A) Digestive
B) Integumentary
C) Nervous
D) Urinary
C
What structure plays a role in air conduction?
A) Alveolus
B) Capillary
C) Lung
D) Trachea
D
The oxygen concentration in blood that returns from systemic circulation is
A) Less than the oxygen concentration in the tissues.
B) The same as the oxygen concentration in the tissues.
C) More than the carbon dioxide concentration in the veins.
D) The same as the carbon dioxide concentration in the veins.
A
When an ionic salt dissolves in water, the ions CO3^2- and K^+ are formed. Which of the following is the formula for the salt?
A. K3CO2
B. KCO3
C. K(CO3)2
D. K2CO3
D. K2CO3
The carbonate ion has a charge of -2
The potassium ion has a charge of +1
For every carbonate ion (-2 charge), you need two potassium ions (+1 each) to balance it.
What happens when the diaphragm moves down?
A) The ribs move inward.
B) A person is able to exhale.
C) Air is drawn into the lungs.
D) Alveolar surface area decreases.
C
Oxygen-rich blood is blood that
A) Has a very low pH level.
B) Flows into systemic circulation.
C) Leaves from the right side of the heart.
D) Contains a high concentration of carbon dioxide.
B
Which wave is associated with a ventricle systole?
A) P wave
B) T wave
C) ST segment
D) QRS complex
D
The mitral valve regulates blood that flows into the
A) Aorta.
B) Septum.
C) Left ventricle.
D) Pulmonary artery.
C
The antidiuretic hormone primarily controls tubular reabsorption of which substance?
A) Water
B) Creatine
C) Urea
D) Calcium
A
Which of the following measured pH values means a solution is basic?
A) 2
B) 5
C) 7
D) 9
D
Which of the following is not a major function of the respiratory system in humans?
A) It provides a large surface area for gas exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide.
B) It helps regulate the blood's pH.
C) It helps cushion the heart against jarring motions.
D) It is responsible for vocalization.
C. It provides some cushioning but it is not one of the major functions.
Which of the following actions contributes to minimizing bias when selecting a sample for an experiment?
A) Selecting participants based on personal beliefs
B) Using convenience sampling methods
C) Ensuring that the sample represents the population of interest
D) Choosing participants from a single geographic location
C
A researcher is conducting a study to examine the effects of exercise on mood in college students. To minimize bias, the researcher decides to use a double-blind procedure. Which of the following accurately describes the role of the double-blind procedure in reducing bias in this study?
A) The researcher and participants are unaware of who is assigned to the control group.
B) The researcher is unaware of which participants are assigned to the experimental group.
C) Both the researcher and participants are unaware of which participants are receiving the treatment and which are receiving the placebo.
D) Only the participants are unaware of whether they are receiving the treatment or the placebo.
C
Which of the following best describes the primary function of a micropipette in a laboratory setting?
A) Measuring the mass of small samples
B) Dispensing precise volumes of liquids
C) Measuring the temperature of solutions
D) Mixing chemical solutions thoroughly
B
Which of the following statements correctly distinguishes between pipettes and micropipettes?
A) Pipettes are used for precise volume measurements, while micropipettes are used for rough estimates.
B) Pipettes measure larger volumes of liquid, while micropipettes measure very small volumes.
C) Pipettes are manual devices, while micropipettes are always automated.
D) Pipettes are used exclusively in chemistry labs, while micropipettes are used in biology labs.
B
When measuring the volume of a liquid with a concave meniscus in a graduated cylinder, where should the reading be taken to ensure accuracy?
A) From the top of the meniscus
B) From the side of the meniscus
C) From the bottom of the meniscus
D) From the center of the meniscus
C
Which of the following structures of the respiratory system is the site of gas exchange?
A) Alveoli
B) Trachea
C) Bronchi
D) Larynx
A
What part of the respiratory system is responsible for regulating the temperature and humidity of the air that comes into the body?
A) The larynx
B) The lungs
C) The trachea
D) The sinuses
D
Which of the following is a product of cellular respiration?
A) Oxygen gas
B) Insulin
C) Glucose
D) Carbon Dioxide
D
Which of the following hormones surges right before ovulation to help trigger this event?
A) Testosterone
B) Estrogen
C) FSH
D) LH
D
Which of the following has the highest electrical negativity?
A) Sodium
B) Calcium
C) Aluminum
D) Chlorine
D
Which of the cell types produces testosterone in the interstitial space?
A) Leydig cells
B) Sertoli cells
C) Granulosa cells
D) Parietal cells
A
Which type of tissue controls when the heart beats?
A) Connective
B) Epithelial
C) Muscle
D) Nervous
D
The skin and linings of internal organs are examples of what type of tissue?
A) Connective
B) Epithelial
C) Muscle
D) Neural
B
Which of the following types of tissue resembles long threads?
A) Connective
B) Epithelial
C) Muscle
D) Neural
C
The term anatomical position refers to a person standing erect with the feet forward, arms hanging to the sides, and _____.
A) Eyes looking down
B) Eyes looking forward
C) Palms facing forward
D) Palms facing the body
C
The knee is _____ to the foot.
A) distal
B) inferior
C) proximal
D) superior
C
Which hormone, produced by the kidney, raises blood pressure?
A) aldosterone
B) antidiuretic hormone
C) renin
D) calcitriol
C
Which of the following most likely directly stimulates the excitation of a neuron?
A) astrocyte
B) muscle fiber
C) myelin sheath
D) neurotransmitter
D
Which of the following gases is known as a compound gas?
A) Oxygen
B) Nitrogen
C) Ammonia
D) Hydrogen
C. more than one atom
Which of the following anatomical terms is not part of the knee?
A) Medial collateral ligament
B) Patella
C) Lateral molleolus
D) Lateral meniscus
C