EOS101 Lecture 11-14; 18 Last test

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94 Terms

1
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Physical deformation of grains occurs as the result of the application of the following stresses (click all that apply):

A. shear stress

B. normal stress

C. perpendicular stress

D. work stress

E. strike stress

A. sheer stress, B. normal stress

2
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The shape of grains is skewed by this type of stress

A. shear stress

B. normal stress

C. perpendicular stress

D. work stress

E. strike stress

A. shear stress

3
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"Neighboring grains dissolve and fuse through immediate re-precipitation, resulting in much

larger crystals" best described the following metamorphic change:

A. recrystallization

B. phase change

C. neo-crystallization

D. pressure solution

A. recrystallization

4
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Garnets are common __________________ minerals

A. phase change

B. recrystallized

C. neo-crystalline

D. polymorphic

E. normal stres

C. neo-crystalline

5
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The following metamorphic change can result in a significant change in the volume that an

individual mineral grain occupies.

A. recrystallization

B. phase change

C. neo-crystallization

D. pressure solution

B. phase change

6
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Stishovite is a high pressure _____ of quartz.

polymorph

7
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Match the following foliated metamorphic rocks to the type of foliation they exhibit:

1. A. alternating dark and light banding

2. B. schistosity

3. C. smooth cleavage

4. D. crenulated cleavage

1. slate

2. phyllite

3. schist

4. gneiss

C, D, B, A

8
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Sort (1-4, with one being lowest) the following metamorphic rocks in order of lowest to highest

grade of metamorphism

1. A. schist

2. B. phyllite

3. C. gneiss

4. D. slate

1. 1

2. 2

3. 3

4. 4

D, B, A, C

9
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The following metamorphic rock is fine grained and exhibits a satin-like sheen

A. slate

B. phyllite

C. schist

D. gneiss

B. phyllite

10
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The following metamorphic rock fractures into thin, dull, smooth slabs.

A. slate

B. phyllite

C. schist

D. gneiss

A. slate

11
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Question 11 of 12

4.0 Points

Match the following non-foliated metamorphic rocks to their protoliths

1. A. quartzite

2. B. hornfels

3. C. marble

1. limestone

2. basalt

3. quartz sandstone

4. mudstone

C, B, A, B

12
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True or False? ALL non-foliated metamorphic rocks formed as the result of heat only and under low to no pressure.

False

13
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Brittle deformation results in ____________; whereas ductile deformation results in ____________.

A. folds; faults

B. faults; folds

C. folds; extension

D. shortening; faults

B. faults;folds

14
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What kind of fold is this? (a trough of stratified rock in which the beds dip toward each other from either side)

A. anticline

B. syncline

C. monocline

B. syncline

15
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What kind of fold is this? (a ridge-shaped fold of stratified rock in which the strata slope downward from the crest. shape = ^)

A. anticline

B. syncline

C. monocline

A. anticline

16
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What kind of fold is this? (a step-like fold in rock strata consisting of a zone of steeper dip within an otherwise horizontal or gently-dipping sequence.)

A. anticline

B. syncline

C. monocline

C. monocline

17
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Folds are the result of.....

A. brittle deformation

B. extensional stress

C. extensional deformation

D. compressional stress

D. compressional stress

18
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The intersection of the fault plane with the ground surface is called....

A. fault plain

B. fault scarp

C. fault trace

D. fault gouge

C. fault trace

19
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True or False? As is implied by the term fault plane, they are always smooth and flat

False

20
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The difference in elevation between fault blocks on either side of a fault is called....

A. fault trace

B. fault scarp

C. fault plane

D. fault gouge

B. fault scarp

21
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The fault block upon which a miner stands inside a mine tunnel is called the....

A. footwall

B. hanging wall

C. fault wall

D. training wall

A. footwall

22
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The footwall of a fault moves up relative to the hanging wall. This is clearly a......

A. strike-slip fault

B. reverse fault

C. normal fault

D. transform fault

C. normal fault

23
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The following fault or fault motion does not create a fault scarp

A. dip-slip

B. normal fault

C. reverse fault

D. strike-slip

D. strike-slip

24
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Thrust faults are low-angle _____________ faults

A. normal

B. reverse

C. strike-slip

D. transform

B. reverse

25
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Shortening of the crust occurs as a result of....

A. normal faults

B. reverse faults

C. transform faults

D. strike-slip motion

B. reverse faults

26
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Normal faults are most likely to form in the following tectonic setting

A. continental-continental collision

B. island arc subduction zone

C. transform boundary

D. continental rift valley

D. continental rift valley

27
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What kind of fault is this? (inclined fractures where the blocks have mostly shifted vertically)

A. normal fault

B. reverse fault

C. transform fault

A. normal fault

28
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What kind of fault is this? (exactly the opposite of normal faults. If the hanging wall rises relative to the footwall)

A. normal fault

B. reverse fault

C. transform fault

B. reverse fault

29
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What kind of fault is this? (a type of fault in which two tectonic plates slide past one another)

A. normal fault

B. reverse fault

C. transform fault

C. transform fault

30
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Waves that propagate through the Earth are called

A. sound waves

B. water waves

C. telewaves

D. radio waves

E. seismic waves

E. seismic waves

31
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The study of earthquakes is called...

A. Shakeology

B. Seismology

C. Tremology

D. Mixology

E. Rockology

B. seismology

32
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Historically (experienced by humans) the largest earthquakes have been of this type

A. Collapse

B. Volcanic

C. Detonations

D. Tectonic

E. Impact

D. Tectonic

33
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True/False: Humans have triggered and even caused earthquakes

True

34
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True/False: There is a direct correlation between high tidal forces and the occurrence of earthquakes throughout the 20th century

False

35
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Earthquakes along convergent plate boundaries can be caused by the following mechanism(s) (check all that apply)

A. movement on transform fault boundaries

B. subduction zone slippage

C. secondary faults

D. failure of rift valley faults

E. primary and secondary collisional faults

F. slab deformation and phase change alteration

G. intraplate faults

B. subduction zone slippage, C. secondary faults, E. primary and secondary collisional faults, F. slab deformation and phase change alteration

36
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Earthquakes that occur inside a tectonic plate are known as _____ quakes

Intraplate

37
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Bending a metal wire into the shape of a paperclip is this kind of deformation...

A. elastic deformation

B. ductile deformation

C. brittle deformation

B. ductile deformation

38
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Breaking a rock into smaller pieces with the aid of a rock hammer is what kind of deformation?

A. brittle deformation

B. ductile deformation

C. elastic deformation

A. brittle deformation

39
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A stretched rubber band is undergoing what kind of deformation?

A. brittle

B. ductile

C. elastic

C. elastic

40
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Tectonic earthquakes are the result of the sudden release of _____ strain as wave energy.

elastic

41
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Hot Spot Items (reading left to right, going down)

Item 1 Wave Front

Item 2 Focus

Item 3 Seismic Waves

Item 4 Wave Ray Path

Item 5 Epicenter

5, 1, 2, 3, 4

42
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In a compressional wave....

A. Particles of the medium move parallel and perpendicular to the direction of wave energy propagation

B. Particles of the medium move parallel to the direction of wave energy propagation

C. Particles of the medium move perpendicular to the direction of wave energy propagation

B. Particles of the medium move parallel to the direction of wave energy propagation

43
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The following kinds of waves can be found among earthquake waves (check all that apply)

A. compressional waves

B. shear waves

C. orbital waves

A. Compressional waves, B. Shear waves, C. orbital waves

44
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The following earthquake wave is a shear surface wave:

A. P-Wave

B. S-Wave

C. R-Wave

D. L-Wave

D. L-wave

45
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The following earthquake wave is an orbital wave:

A. P-Wave

B. S-Wave

C. R-Wave

D. L-Wave

C. R-wave

46
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Rank the following earthquake waves based on their velocity (1 fastest, 4 slowest)

A. L-Wave

B. R-Wave

C. P-Wave

D. S-Wave

C. P-wave, D. S-wave, A. L-wave, B. R-wave (fastest to slowest)

47
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When a seismic wave moves from a high density layer above to a low density layer below, its path is refracted ___________

A. upwards

B. downwards

C. not at all

B. downwards

48
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A house is hit by seismic waves around 150km from the epicenter. Match the kind of ground motion the house will experience when each wave arrives.

A. side-to-side

B. up-and-down

C. circular up and down

1. P-Wave

2. S-Wave

3. R-Wave

4. L-Wave

B, A, C, A

49
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A seismograph is also known as a ______

seismometer

50
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The "squiggly" record created by a seismograph is known as a ______

seismogram

51
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Which types of seismic waves travel faster?

A. body waves

B. surface waves

A. body waves

52
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It takes at least ______ seismographs at 90 degrees to each other to record the full range of horizontal ground motion.

A. one

B. two

C. three

D. four

B. two

53
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A seismic zone that is known to have had large historical earthquakes but is apparently overdue for another similar quake is known as....

A. a seismic vault

B. a seismic slip

C. a seismic pass

D. a seismic bore

E. a seismic gap

E. a seismic gap

54
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True or False? Over 95% of the Earth's earthquakes occur on or near plate boundaries.

True

55
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What do seismologists call the phenomenon of slow, non-stick-slip fault movement. In other words, the fault does not build up elastic strain, instead slowly slipping continuously.

A. fault inactivation

B. fault dorminancy

C. fault strike

D. fault creep

E. fault stick

D. fault creep

56
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Earthquakes larger than M5.0 have occurred along the Devil Fault in 1850, 1925, and 1952. What is the recurrence interval of such earthquakes along this fault?

A. 1909 years

B. 51 years

C. 34 years

D. 26 years

E. 102 years

B. 51 years

57
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The study of earthquakes that are not included in historical records is known as.....

A. anthroseismology

B. Ontoloseismology

C. Urseismology

D. Paleontology

E. Paleoseismology

E. Paleoseismology

58
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Which of the following is likely the most obvious feature preserved as evidence of ancient earthquakes?

A. ruined farmsteads

B. fault scarp

C. planar fault trace

D. burned trees

E. local mass extinctions

B. fault scarp

59
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The "Ghost Forests" along the Cascadia Subduction zone coastal region formed in 1700 as a result of....

A. sudden earthquake-related subsidence of coastal areas (putting tree roots into salty groundwater)

B. sudden earthquake-related subsidence of coastal areas (putting tree roots int fresh groundwater)

C. sudden earthquake-related uplift of coastal areas (lifting tree roots out of the fresh groundwater)

D. sudden earthquake-related uplift of coastal areas (lifting tree roots out of the salty groundwater)

E. none of the above

A. a sudden earthquake-related subsidence of coastal areas (putting tree roots into salty groundwater)

60
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Studies based on the following techniques have led to repeated successful predictions of earthquakes worldwide

A. foreshock behavior

B. measures of ground deformation

C. measures of changes in ground conductivity

D. measures of water levels in wells

E. prescient behavior of animals

F. monitoring of earthquake lights

G. none of the above

G. none of the above

61
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There is plenty of anecdotal evidence of animals acting strangely "just before an earthquake" occurred. What is the most likely explanation of this phenomenon held by seismologists?

A. animals are psychic

B. animals detect minute efflorescences of gases emitted by failing faults

C. animals are much better at detecting earthquake lights than humans

D. animals are likely picking up the minute ground motion caused by the arrival of P-Waves

E. animals are likely picking up the minute ground motion caused by megashear waves

D. animals are likely picking up the minute ground motion caused by the arrival of P-waves

62
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True or False? Seismologists have found repeated success by turning to psychics (especially Theresa Caputo, Tyler Henry, and John Edward) for help with earthquake prediction.

False

63
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Which of the following earthquake hazards has been known to do more property damage and cause many more deaths after the quake?

A. ground shaking

B. landslides

C. liquefaction

D. fire

D. fire

64
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Sandblows (or sand volcanoes) are associated with which of the following earthquake hazards

A. landslides

B. liquefaction

C. fire

D. disease

B. liquefaction

65
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This earthquake scale measures the intensity of an earthquake based on how much damage it causes

A. Mercalli Scale

B. Richter Scale

C. Moment Magnitude Scale

A. Mercalli Scale

66
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This earthquake scale is only able to accurately provide a magnitude for quakes M7.0 or less, and is based on a measure of the largest ground motion captured by a local seismograph

A. Mercalli Scale

B. Richter Scale

C. Moment Magnitude Scale

B. Richter Scale

67
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This is the most widely used earthquake magnitude scale internationally

A. Mercalli Scale

B. Richter Scale

C. Moment Magnitude Scale

C. Moment manitude scale

68
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An increase of ONE MAGNITUDE, increases the amount of energy released _____ times

33

69
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Civil engineers are known to say "Earthquakes don't kill people, ____________ do".

A. landslides

B. buildings

C. floods

D. tornados

B. buildings

70
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Separating a building from ground motion by placing it on shear and vertical dampening devices is known as....

A. base isolation

B. anchoring

C. bracing

D. tuning

A. base isolation

71
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The highest level of the Mercalli Intensity Scale is _____

A. V

B. VII

C. X

D. XII

D. XII

72
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Today's continental glaciers are limited to...(click all that apply)

A. North Pole

B. Arctic Ocean

C. Greenland

D. Antarctica

C. Greenland, D. Antarctica

73
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True or False? Mountain glaciers can exist in the tropics.

True

74
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A mountain glacier requires cool summer temperatures, sufficient snow fall, a gentle slope, and _______________ to form and be sustained.

A. high winds

B. high summer temperatures in the valley

C. little summer precipitation

D. low winds

D. low winds

75
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Typical glacial ice has __________________ air bubbles.

A. >50%

B. <5%

C. <20%

D. 80%

C. <20%

76
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A mountain glacier's ice mass moves by ____________ (click all that apply)

A. internal flow driven by gravity

B. sliding at the base

C. crevasse collapse

D. knickpoint migration

A. internal flow driven by gravity, B. sliding at the base

77
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Brittle ice on the surface of a glacier fractures to form ___________

A. erratics

B. crevasses

C. moraines

D. lateral moraines

B. crevasses

78
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On average, glacial ice becomes ductile at a glacial ice depth of _______________

A. less than 30 meters

B. >90 meters

C. >60 meters

D. >2 km

C. >60 meters

79
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Glacial ice moves from the ____________________ to the ___________________.

A. zone of accumulation; zone of ablation

B. zone of ablation; zone of accumulation

C. ductile zone; brittle zone

D. brittle zone; ductile zone

A. zone of accumulation; zone of ablation

80
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The "snout" of a glacier, that is the edge that has moved farthest into the valley or away from the zone of accumulation is also called (click all that apply).

A. blade

B. spear

C. toe

D. terminus

C. toe, D. terminus

81
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When a glacier begins to retreat, the ice mass is......

A. no longer moving at all

B. is moving downslope towards the valley

C. is moving upslope towards the cirque

D. experiencing a rate of ablation that is far below the rate of accumulation

B. is moving downslope towards the valley

82
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When a glacier retreats it typically leaves behind a thick sheet of.....

A. loess

B. less

C. till

D. toll

C. till

83
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Large ice-transported boulders are called....

A. eskers

B. errors

C. erasmus

D. erratics

D. erratics

84
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This type of glacial deposit can be found in areas that have never been glaciated

A. erratics

B. till

C. pyroclastic debris

D. loess

D. loess

85
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When two glaciers flow together, their adjacent lateral moraines form a.....

A. terminal moraine

B. lateral moraine

C. internal moraine

D. medial moraine

D. medial moraine

86
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Lakes that form during glacial retreat as large junks of ice melt to fill depressions in the till are called....

A. tarns

B. mettle

C. kettles

D. drumlins

C. kettles

87
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When a glacier retreats, the under-ice meltwater channels that are filled with gravel become....

A. drumlins

B. tarns

C. eskers

D. erratics

C. eskers

88
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Flooded former glacial valleys are known as....

A. eskers

B. bjorns

C. jans

D. fjords

D. fjords

89
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What do geologists call time periods in which glaciers are retreating.

A. interglacials

B. ice ages

C. glacial periods

D. tropical periods

A. interglacials

90
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The large multi-continent ice sheet that expanded in the Northern Hemisphere during the Wisconsinan glacial period was called....

A. Greenland Ice Sheet

B. Illinoisan sheet

C. Felsian sheet

D. Labrador Ice Sheet

D. Labrador Ice Sheet

91
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The following tectonic conditions aid in the formation of large continental ice sheets (click all that apply)

A.

the fewer mountain belts the easier it is for continental glaciers to form

B.

having large landmasses at high latitudes

C. having lots of ocean currents that bring warm equatorial waters into higher latitudes

D. having extensive landmasses rather than lots of smaller islands

B. having large landmasses at high latitudes, D. having extensive landmasses rather than lots of smaller islands

92
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The weathering of mountain belts acts as a ___________ for atmospheric carbon dioxide

A. sink

B. source

A. sink

93
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True or False? An increase in annual eruptions of volcanoes around the globe are a major driving force behind our current atmospheric warming.

False

94
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Changes in the shape of the Earth's orbit around the sun on a 100,000 year cycle is known as changes in.......

A. axial tilt

B. precession

C. eccentricity

D. drift

C. eccentricity