Comprehensive Emergency Medicine and Trauma Management Review

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Last updated 6:16 PM on 6/11/26
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220 Terms

1
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What is a complication of forceful bag-mask ventilation?

Aspiration due to air entering the stomach

2
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Why can airway management be challenging in patients with Down syndrome?

Misaligned teeth and a larger tongue

3
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In what area of the lungs does respiration occur?

Alveoli

4
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What is the initial intervention for a 75-year-old male with severe respiratory distress and SpO2 87%?

Administer oxygen via nonrebreather mask at 10-15 L/min

5
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What should you do for a conscious adult with severe airway obstruction who cannot speak?

Perform abdominal thrusts immediately

6
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What is spina bifida?

A developmental defect in which the spine and spinal cord do not form properly

7
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When should APGAR scores be calculated?

At 1 minute and 5 minutes after birth

8
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What findings best describe septic shock?

Hypotension, infection, and fever

9
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What are the three components of the Pediatric Assessment Triangle (PAT)?

Appearance, Work of Breathing, and Circulation to Skin

10
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What should you do if a patient becomes pulseless and apneic during transport?

Stop the ambulance, begin CPR, attach the AED, and request ALS

11
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What commonly causes chronic renal failure?

Hypertension and diabetes

12
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Which abdominal organ is most likely to bleed profusely if injured?

Liver

13
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What type of fracture is associated with osteoporosis or cancer and occurs with minimal force?

Pathologic fracture

14
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What is the correct treatment for a 2-year-old child with a high fever?

Provide oxygen, expose the patient appropriately, and transport

15
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If a baby's head is delivered face down during childbirth, what is this presentation called?

Cephalic presentation

16
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What should the EMT consider when assessing a patient with bizarre behavior?

An acute mental illness may be causing the behavior

17
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Who is primarily responsible for decisions regarding patient care at an MCI scene?

The Incident Commander or Medical Branch Director

18
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Who is in charge when you arrive at an MCI before fire or law enforcement?

The most senior EMS provider on scene

19
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Which patient may legally refuse care?

An alert and oriented patient who understands the risks and benefits of refusal

20
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What is the most important information to provide during a hospital report?

Chief complaint, vital signs, medications, allergies, medical history, and treatments provided

21
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Which patient does NOT justify Code 3 driving?

A patient without a life-threatening condition

22
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When responding to a chlorine spill, where should you park the ambulance?

At least 300 feet upwind

23
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How should you approach a medical helicopter?

Approach from the front only after receiving approval from the pilot and watch for hazards

24
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What is the first rule of safe lifting?

Keep your back straight and lift with your legs

25
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When is rapid extrication indicated?

When the scene is unsafe or immediate transport is required and the patient is not trapped

26
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What should you do upon arriving at a multiple-patient incident after ensuring scene safety?

Begin triage and request additional resources if needed

27
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What color indicates severe risk of terrorist attack in the Homeland Security Advisory System?

Red

28
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What should you do if a patient with chest pain refuses treatment?

Ensure the patient is alert, oriented, and understands the risks of refusal

29
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What is most important during transport?

Continue patient assessment, communication, and reassurance

30
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For which situations are EMS personnel mandated reporters?

Child abuse, elder abuse, and sexual assault

31
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How should you care for a terminally ill patient with a valid DNR?

Provide comfort care and emotional support

32
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What is correct about sickle cell disease?

The red blood cells are abnormally shaped and carry oxygen less effectively

33
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What finding is common after a generalized seizure?

Incontinence

34
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What option should be offered to a sexual assault victim whenever possible?

The option of being treated by a provider of the same gender

35
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What should you suspect in a child presenting with fever, headache, photophobia, altered mental status, and a rash?

Meningitis

36
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What is the function of the coronary arteries?

To supply oxygenated blood to the myocardium

37
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What are universal precautions?

Safety practices used to prevent contact with blood and body fluids

38
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Which of the following is NOT part of the initial assessment?

Obtaining a blood pressure

39
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What movement occurs when the head bends downward toward the chest?

Flexion

40
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How is Hepatitis A most commonly transmitted?

Fecal-oral route through contaminated food or water

41
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What is the most common cause of death in children outside the newborn period?

Respiratory failure

42
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What is the likely condition for a construction worker in a hot environment with pale, moist skin, dizziness, nausea, and weakness?

Heat exhaustion

43
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What beneficial effects does epinephrine have during anaphylaxis?

Bronchodilation and vasoconstriction

44
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What signs are commonly associated with a stroke?

Facial droop, weakness, paralysis, vision changes, and speech deficits

45
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What is hypoglycemia?

Low blood glucose level

46
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What additional information should be obtained during a gynecologic emergency?

Menstrual history, pregnancy status, and related gynecologic information

47
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How should circulation be assessed in a conscious patient?

Check radial pulse and assess skin color, temperature, and moisture

48
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When are TB patients most contagious?

When they are coughing

49
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Which diabetic patient should receive oral glucose?

A conscious patient with suspected hypoglycemia who can swallow

50
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How do the kidneys help regulate blood pressure?

By regulating sodium and water balance

51
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What is the normal blood glucose range?

Approximately 70-120 mg/dL

52
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What are the signs and symptoms of hypoglycemia?

Altered mental status, cool clammy skin, weakness, dizziness, hunger, seizures

53
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What are common signs and symptoms of hyperglycemia?

Warm dry skin, excessive thirst, frequent urination, fruity breath, altered mental status

54
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What are Kussmaul respirations associated with?

Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA)

55
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Which patient should NOT receive oral glucose?

A patient who cannot swallow or has a decreased level of consciousness

56
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What is the leading cause of shock in trauma patients?

Hemorrhage

57
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What are the three stages of shock?

Compensated, decompensated, irreversible

58
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What is cardiogenic shock?

Shock caused by failure of the heart to pump effectively

59
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What is neurogenic shock?

Shock caused by loss of sympathetic nervous system control

60
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What type of shock is commonly associated with severe allergic reactions?

Anaphylactic shock

61
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What is septic shock?

A distributive shock caused by severe infection

62
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What is obstructive shock?

Shock caused by a physical obstruction to circulation

63
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What are the classic signs of compensated shock?

Tachycardia, cool clammy skin, anxiety, delayed capillary refill

64
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What is often a late sign of shock?

Hypotension

65
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What does START stand for?

Simple Triage and Rapid Treatment

66
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What triage category is assigned to walking wounded patients?

Green (Minor)

67
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A patient breathing more than 30 times per minute is assigned which START category?

Red (Immediate)

68
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A patient who is not breathing begins breathing after airway repositioning. What category?

Red (Immediate)

69
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A patient who remains apneic after airway repositioning is assigned which category?

Black (Deceased/Expectant)

70
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What triage category is assigned to a patient who cannot follow simple commands?

Red (Immediate)

71
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What color tag is used for delayed treatment patients?

Yellow

72
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What color tag is used for immediate treatment patients?

Red

73
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What color tag is used for minor injuries?

Green

74
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What color tag is used for deceased or expectant patients?

Black

75
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What does a DNR order instruct EMS providers?

Not to initiate CPR or advanced resuscitation efforts

76
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What should an EMT do if there is doubt about the validity of a DNR?

Begin resuscitation and contact medical control

77
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What is implied consent?

Consent assumed for an unconscious or incapacitated patient needing emergency care

78
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What are the requirements for a valid refusal of care?

Patient must be alert, competent, informed, and understand risks

79
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What is the best legal protection for an EMT?

A complete and accurate patient care report (PCR)

80
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Why is documentation important?

It provides a legal record of patient care and continuity of care

81
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What should be included in every PCR?

Assessment findings, treatments, times, patient response, and disposition

82
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What is abandonment?

Termination of care without equal or higher medical authority assuming responsibility

83
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What is negligence?

Failure to provide the standard of care resulting in harm

84
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What is battery in EMS?

Treating a competent patient without consent

85
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What is assault in EMS?

Creating fear of unwanted physical contact or treatment

86
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Who can terminate the EMT-patient relationship?

Equal or higher medical authority or patient refusal when appropriate

87
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What should be done first when arriving on scene?

Scene size-up and ensure scene safety

88
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What are standard precautions used for?

Preventing exposure to bloodborne pathogens

89
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What agency regulates workplace safety?

OSHA

90
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What is the purpose of an incident command system (ICS)?

To organize resources and personnel during incidents

91
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What does PPE stand for?

Personal Protective Equipment

92
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What is the first priority at a hazardous materials incident?

Scene safety and personal safety

93
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What position should an unconscious breathing patient generally be placed in?

Recovery position

94
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What is the primary purpose of oxygen therapy?

To improve oxygen delivery to tissues

95
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What is cyanosis?

Bluish discoloration caused by inadequate oxygenation

96
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What is the most reliable indicator of adequate breathing?

Adequate chest rise and fall with normal mental status

97
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What is the normal oxygen saturation range for most healthy adults?

95-100%

98
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What is the purpose of a nonrebreather mask?

To deliver high-concentration oxygen

99
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What is the purpose of a bag-valve mask (BVM)?

To provide positive-pressure ventilation to patients who are not breathing adequately

100
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What is the maximum suction time for an adult?

15 seconds