AANP FNP Certification Exam Study Guide (2026-2027 Update) Verified and Actual Exam Questions and Answers (100%Verified) Already Graded A +

Cranial nerves responsible for extraoculomotor movements?

a. 2, 3, 6?

b. 3, 4, 6?

Patient with hx of hypertension and stroke, now having memory loss and confusion - indicates what?

a. Alzheimer's

b. Vascular Dementia?: Vascular dementia refers to a progressive decline in memory and cognitive functioning caused by a blockage or reduction in the blood flow to the brain. While there is no known cure, you can learn to manage symptoms, prevent further strokes, and enjoy a full, rewarding life.

CAGE acronym

1. Have you ever felt you needed to Cut down on your drinking?

2. Have people Annoyed you by criticizing your drinking?

3. Have you ever felt Guilty about drinking?

4. Have you ever felt you needed a drink first thing in the morning (Eye-opener) to steady your nerves or to get rid of a hangover?

Treatment for chronic alcoholism?

Patient has to express help needed to quit drinking is critical. The patient should be given a list of options for treatment including AA and pharmacotherapy.

Frail elderly mammogram breast tissue?

?

Patient has Barrett's esophagus, insurance no longer covers gastroenterologist who was treating condition, patient at the FNP office, wanting a prescription for medication... What should the FNP do?

a. Refer to oncologist?

b. Refill prescription?

GERD treatment?

a. PPI? Per American College of Gastroenterology, treatment should begin with a PPI.

b. H2? An H2 is inferior to PPI's.

3 months on Symmetrel, TSH increased, T4 normal, what do you do?

a. Increase medication?

b. Decrease medication?

Lipid level of 1500, increased risk for?

a. pancreatitis?

Frail elder, increased creatinine, indication?

Renal falure

Fingernail hematoma treatment?

a. drill hole and drain blood?

Abnormal cells on PAP, what do you do next?

a. Refer for colposcopy?

Red beefy tongue?

a. Pernicious Anemia?

b. Iron Deficiency?

c. Folate Deficiency?

Low Hemoglobin, Low Hematocrit, High MCV - Indicates what?

Anemia

Koplick Spots?

a. Measles?

Signs and Symptoms of Roseola?

Is the sixth diseases. Roseola is a mild viral illness of childhood. It is characterized by high fever that typically comes on suddenly and lasts for three to five days. Other symptoms of roseola are mild nasal congestion, eye redness, and a rash that appears after the fever has resolved.

Pregnant teacher, with exposure to Fifths' Disease - what risk is there for the fetus?

Fetal death.

6 Month Old with Closed Anterior Fontanel?

it is normal in 10% of the children depend on the race. and it can be abnormal in some kids.

At birth, the average size of the posterior fontanel is 0.5 cm in white infants and 0.7 cm in black infants.16 The fontanel usually is completely closed by two months of age.

3 Month Old infant with Down Syndrome, due to milk intolerance, mom started infant on Goat's Milk; now has pale conjunctiva but otherwise healthy; with low Hematocrit, what other test would you order?

a. CBC

b. Iron, TIBC

4 Month Old with Strabismus, mom worried, what do you tell her?

a. Normal?

4 Month Old "won't keep anything down", what is the main thing you look for?

a. Dehydration?

Man with HTN, CAD, present femoral pulses, but absent pedal pulses?

a. DVT?

b. Venous Insufficiency?

c. Arterial Insufficiency?

Diabetic patient with foot laceration, at risk for what?

a. foot ulcer?

b. acute osteomyelitis

Definition of metabolic syndrome?

Metabolic syndrome is a combination of factors that multiply a person's risk for heart disease, diabetes and stroke. Almost 34% of American adults are affected.

Treatment for Gonorrhea?

a. Rocephin IM and Zithromax po

b. Doxycycline po

Diagnose triche?

a. Wet Prep?

b. KOH?

Patient with history of PID, increase risk for?

a. Infertility?

Increased risk for ectopic pregnancy, history of...?

a. Salpingitis

Newborn with foot turned in ("toeing in"), what do you do?

a. Refer immediately to orthopedist?

b. Routine followup?

Osgood Schlatter Disease pain location?

Osgood-Schlatter disease causes pain at the tibial tubercle — the bony bump where the patellar tendon attaches to the tibia (shinbone).

Growth plate fracture (Salter-Harris fx) location and pain?

Located in the metaphysis region

Rotator Cuff injury presentation?

First, determine the patient's chief symptom (eg, pain, weakness, instability, limited ROM)

* Cause by the overuse of the joints.

Causes of tachycardia?

a. Fever?

b. Anemia?

c. Hypotension?

Definitive diagnosis of acute bacterial proctatitis?

a. Urinalysis and Culture

b. Vigorous Massage of Prostate to Release Fluid for Culture?

c. Urethral Culture? and PSA?

Man with high BPH, perform digital rectal exam - how does prostate feel?

a. Asymmetrical, Nodular, Firm

b. Symmetrical, Boggy

? non tender

Patient present with "bag of worms", what does this indicate?

a. Varicocele

caused by too much standing.

Legg-Calve-Perthes disease?

Avascular necrosis of the proximal femoral head...

McMurray's Sign

The McMurray test, also known as the McMurray circumduction test is used to evaluate individuals for tears in the meniscus of the knee. It is a rotation test for demonstrating torn cartilage of the knee.

Epitaxis is most common in the area of the nose known as Kiesselbach's Triangle, where is this located?

a. anterior septum?

b. middle turbinate?

c. sinus turbinate?

Elderly presents with atrophic vaginitis, small uterus, and palpable 4x5 ovary, what do you do?

a. Pelvic ultrasound?

Grade 3 cells on Pap, treatment?

From CIN 2 Refer for colposcopy or biopsy,

Treatment include laser or cryotherapy

During a colposcopy, the nurse or doctor may take a small sample of cells (biopsy) from the surface of the cervix. The results may show CIN. CIN stands for cervical intraepithelial neoplasia and is not cancer. There are 3 grades of CIN and they relate to how deeply the abnormal cells have gone into the skin covering the cervix.

CIN 1 - up to one third of the thickness of the lining covering the cervix has abnormal cells. (Mild)

CIN 2 - between one third and two thirds of the skin covering the cervix has abnormal cells. (Moderate)

CIN 3 - the full thickness of the lining covering the cervix has abnormal cells. (Severe).

Patient with bleeding after menopause?

a. Endometrial biopsy?

Young adult female, wants birth control, forgets to take pills, doesn't want to get pregnant for at least 5 years, what do you suggest?

a. Intrauterine Device?

Shingles near eye, patient wants cream and analgesic, what do you do?

a. Order Acyclovir cream and analgesic?

b. Immediate referral to opthamologist?

Patient presents with rash on shoulder, erythematous maculopapular rash with center clearing, and scaling?

a. Tinea Pedis?

b. Tinea Corporis?

c. Psoriasis?

Peripheral vision loss = ?

Central vision loss = ?

glaucoma.

Patient with Atopic Dermatitis, look for what other diseases?

a. Asthma?

Patient forgot to start Thanksgiving dinner, and husband states that she has trouble remembering tasks and has trouble with organization... What is this indicative of?

a. Alzheimer's?

b. Delerium?

Quick assessment of patients fall risk?

a. Timed Get up and Go?

Mitral Regurgitation = sound and heard best at?

Mitral Stenosis = " " " " " "?.

Mitral Prolapse = " " " " " "?

Mitral Sclerosis = " " " " " "?

Aortic Stenois = " " " " " "?

Aortic Regurgitation = " " " " " "?

Aortic Sclerosis = " " " " " "?

This murmur is usually best heard at the apex, with radiation into the axilla. can be caused by acute rheumatic fever. helosystolic mumur.

Holosystolic murmurs begin at the very onset of systole, as pressure in the ventricle exceeds that in the atrium. Hence, the murmur begins with the first heart sound (S1) and continues throughout systole until the diminishing ventricular pressure equals that in the atrium. The murmur goes into and obscures the second sound (S2). The murmur is usually "flat" in intensity and blowing in pitch or timbre.

When regurgitation is of a large magnitude, diastolic blood return from the atrium to the ventricle produces a third heart sound (S3) and a diastolic flow rumble (FR)

3 ways to assess cognitive function in patient with signs/symptoms of memory loss - all but which of the following?

a. Mini Mental

b. Depression Screen

c.

d.

Patient voices aching when ambulating? This question did not specify if it was bilateral or unilateral Mentioned something about "rubor" but I can't remember what it said exactly...

a. DVT?

b. Venous Insufficiency?

c. Arterial Insufficiency?

Patient with HIV took high-potency anti-viral treatments and CD4 is >400, what does this indicate?

a. Patient has full-blown AIDS as defined by the CDC?

?

Patient has following labs: listed serology for Hepatitis, and then had to know if they had an active infection or immune, etc...

HBsAg (hepatitis B surface antigen):

when this is "positive" or "reactive," it

means the person is currently infected with

hepatitis B and is able to pass the infection

on to others.

HbIgg= gone

HB igE: Immediate

surface antibody (sAby or anti-HBs): If this test is positive it means that a person is immune to the hepatitis B virus and does not carry infection.

Chronic Hepatitis B infection - An estimated10 percent of people with the virus develop chronic Hepatitis B. They have positive HBsAg, positive anti-HBc, negative IgM anti-HBc and negative anti-HBs.

mmunity from Hepatitis B infection -This person has surface antibodies present due to recovery from a prior Hepatitis B infection. These individuals have negative HBsAg, positive anti-HBc and positive anti-HBs.

Acute Hepatitis B infection - Someone with an acute Hepatitis B infection has positive HBsAg, positive anti-HBc, positive IgM anti-HBc and negative anti-HBs.

Chronic Hepatitis B infection - An estimated10 percent of people with the virus develop chronic Hepatitis B. They have positive HBsAg, positive anti-HBc, negative IgM anti-HBc and negative anti-HBs.

What is Pinguecula?

A pinguecula (above) is a yellowish patch or bump on the conjunctiva, near the cornea. It most often appears on the side of the eye closest to the nose. It is a change in the normal tissue that results in a deposit of protein, fat and/or calcium.Jul 15, 2015

Both growths are noncancerous and are fairly common