Anatomy Quiz 6/15

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Last updated 11:48 PM on 6/10/26
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125 Terms

1
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What are the five positional requirements for anatomical position?

  • The body is standing erect or upright

  • The head and eyes are directed to the front

  • The upper limbs are relaxed and down to the side of the body

  • The palms are directed anteriorly and not rotated

  • The feet are approximately shoulder-width apart with the toes directed to the front

2
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What is the purpose of anatomical position?

To help describe how the various parts of the body relate to one another and better understnad how the structures are named.

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How does anatomical position help communicate the location of anatomical structures?

The names of certain parts of the body are based on Latin or Greek origins which relate to some kind of feature

4
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What does the median (sagittal) plane seperate the body into

Right and left sections

5
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What does the frontal plane seperate the body into

Anterior and posterior sections

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What does the axial plane seperate the body into

Superior and inferior sections

7
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What is the difference between the mid-sagittal plane and the sagittal plane?

The Mid-Sagittal Plane separates the body into equal right and left sides, where a Sagittal Plane is any line with a vertical line that separates the body at a spot away from the midline

8
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What are the two other names for the axial plane?

Transverse and Horizontal

9
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What are the two subdivisions within the thoracic cavity, and some anatomical structures located within each

  • Mediastinal Cavity

    • Heart

    • Esophogus

    • Trachea

    • Great Vessels

  • Pleural Cavity

    • Lungs

    • Airways

    • Blood vessels

10
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What are the two subdivisions located within the abdominopelvic cavity, and some anatomical structures located within each

  • Abdominal Cavity

    • Liver

    • Gallbladder

    • Pancreas

    • Intestines

  • Pelvic Cavity

    • Bladder

      • Prostate/Seminal vesicles (males)

      • Uterus/Vagina (women)

      • Rectum

      • Anus

11
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What muscle seperates the thoracic cavity from the abdominopelvic cavity

Diaphragm

12
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What is the difference between the parietal layers and the visceral layers of serous membranes?

Parietal layer: the lining against the wall of the cavity

Visceral layer: the lining against the organ(s) within the cavity.

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What are the three regional names given to serous membranes and the anatomical structures they surround?

Pleura —> lungs

Pericardium —> heart

Peritoneum —> abdominal organs

14
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The brain is ___ to the spinal cord

Superior (Cranial)

15
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The nose is ___ to the eyes

Medial

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The fingers are ___ to the elbow

Distal

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The thumb is ___ to the pinky

Lateral

18
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The skeleton is ___ to the skin

Deep

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The stomach is ___ to the heart

Inferior (Caudal)

20
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Which of the following anatomical terms best describe the relationship of the right parotid gland with the left submandibular gland?

Contralateral

21
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Which of the following anatomical terms best describes the orientation of the palm of the hand in anatomical position?

Anterior

22
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What anatomical structure can be desbrided as being bilateral?

Lungs

23
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What structure can best be described as being lateral to the Tibia?

Fibula

24
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What are the three major functions of a muscle?

  • Produce movement

  • Produce heat

  • Maintain posture

25
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What are the three different types of muscle tissue?

  • Skeletal

  • Cardiac

  • Smooth

26
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What portion of the muscle will ACTUALLY change length during a muscle contraction?

Muscle belly

27
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What portion of a muscle will NOT change lenth during a muscle contraction?

Tendon and Aponeurosis

28
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What proteins are located within muscle fibers and slide past one another to cause the muscle fiber to shorten?

Myofibrils

29
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What are three different sites of muscle attachment?

  • Deep surface of the skin

  • Organs

  • Skeleton

30
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What is the definition of muscle origin?

The site that remains more fixed, proximal attachment

31
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What is the definition of muscle insertion?

The site that moves more when the muscle tendon moves more, distal end

32
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What are the six ways muscles may be named?

  • Names based on shapes

  • Action

  • Sites of attachment

  • Subdivisions

  • Appearances and-or relative positions

  • Latin or Greek

33
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What is the rold of a stabilizer muscle?

Help maintain position of a body region even if it is not directly involved in the body movement.

34
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What is the role of a synergist muscle?

Work to stabilize the joint and eliminate unwanted joint movement.

35
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What is the difference between isometric and isotonic muscle contractions?

Isometric: generates force without changing the length of the muscle

Isotonic: generated force by changing the length of the muscle

36
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What are the two types of isotonis contractions? Give an example.

Concentric: shortens the muscle (upward phase of a bicep curl)

Eccentric: elongates the muscle (downward phase of a bicep curl)

37
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What are the three ways cardiac muscle differs from skeletal muscle?

  • It is far less abundant

  • It does not attach to, nor does it affect, the movement of the skeleton

  • Cardiac innervation comes from the autonomic subdivision, making it involuntary, while skeletal innervation comes from the somatic, making it voluntary

38
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How is smooth muscle different from both cardia and skeletal muscle?

Smooth muscle creates wavelike contractions (peristalsis) which move food through the digestive tract.

39
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Which of the following movements is defined as moving a limb closer towards the midline?

Adduction

40
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Which muscle type is involuntary and appears nonstriated under a micropscope?

Smooth

41
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What are the three different types of cartilage found throughout the body? What are their functions?

  • Hyaline cartilage —> forms the costal cartilage, protecting the anterior aspect of the thoracic wall; lines the ends of our long bones, reducing friction in joints; builds up the end of your nose, keeping the airway open; and forms the distal extremity of the nose, precursor for bone (replaced by bone within our growth plates)

  • Elastic cartilage —> forms the auricular cartilage in our ears, in our epiglottis and laryngeal cartilage to guide food down into the esophagus and away from the airway.

  • Fibrocartilage —> more dense and less flexible, found in the outer ring of intervertebral discs, in ligaments connecting one bone to another, in the pubic symphysis, forms joint capsules, makes up menisci

42
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What is the different between the axial and appendicular skeleton?

  • Axial - bones that fall on the midline of our body (head, neck, spine, coccyx, and ribs), provide a vital role in protecting the vital organs within our body

  • Appendicular - bones that make up our limbs, play a key role in the movement of our body

43
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What type of bone lines the outer edge of the bone?  What type of bone lines the inner aspect of cortical bone and surrounds the medullary cavity?

  • Compact (Cortical) bone lines the outer edge of the bone

  • Spongy (Cancellous) bone lines the inner aspect of the cortical bone and surrounds the medullary cavity

44
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What is Osteoporosis?  What type of bone is affected initially when this condition starts?

  • Gradual bone loss following a depletion of calcium in the bone

  • Spongy (Cancellous) bone

45
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What is the definition of the Epiphysis of a long bone?

The caps on the end, made by an enlargement of the bone

46
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What is the definition of the Diaphysis of a long bone?

The long central portion, also known as the shaft

47
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What is the definition of the Metaphysis of a long bone?

The location in the long bone where there was a growth plate which beome bone as we grow.

48
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Which system is responsible for the production of blood cells?

Skeletal

49
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In addition to bone, what tissue makes up the other major component of the skeletal system?

Cartilage

50
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What tissue is found lining the end of long bones to provide cushion?

Cartilage

51
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What type of cartilage is the most abundant in the human body, composing such structures as costal cartilage, articular cartilage, and the tip of the nose?

Hyaline cartilage

52
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Intervertebral discs are predominantly made of which type of cartilage?

Fibrocartilage

53
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What anatomical term represents a thin extension of bone providing sites of muscle attachment?

Process

54
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Which classification of bone is best described as being as long as they are wide, and acts to stabilize with little movement?

Short bones

55
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Which type of cartilage is the most regionally localized and the most flexible?

Elastic cartilage

56
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Which classification of bone forms within a tendon?

Sesmoid bone

57
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What structure is the location for storage of red or yellow bone marrow?

Medullary cavity

58
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Which layer of bone directly surrounds the medullary cavity?

Endosteum

59
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The metacarpals of the hand are examples of which classification of bone?

Long bone

60
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What is a smooth depression within a bone?

Fossa

61
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Movement occurs ___ a plane and ___ an axis

Along and about

62
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What plane and axis are involved in the action of sitting in a chair?

Sagittal plane and frontal axis

63
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What plane and axis are involved in shaking your head in disapproval?

Transverse plane and vertical axis

64
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What plane and axis are involved in the flapping your arms during the chicken dance?

Frontal plane and sagittal axis

65
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What plane and axis are involved in the action of shifting your weight from side to side nervously?

Frontal plane and sagittal axis

66
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What is a differential diagnosis?

A list of potential pathologies we can not rule out after a full clinical evaluation.

67
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What is an example of a differential diagnosis?

“I believe you have an ACL tear, there may also be a meniscal and MCL tear, but I can not tell for sure.”;

68
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What is a definitive diagnosis?

A diagnosis after imaging and all injuries are known

69
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What occurs during the initial on-field survey? What are the primary goals?

  • Primary: determining if there is a life-threatening and/or a limb-threatening injury

  • Secondary: seriousness? what are the next steps to get the athlete off the field in the fastest and safest way possible

70
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What is a clinical assessment?

What brought the client in and figuring out how we can make it so that they don’t have to continue coming back with the same issue.

71
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What resources are typically available during clinical assessment that aren’t during an on-field assessment?

  • Evaluation tools (tape measure, goniometers, etc.)

  • Medical records

  • Time

72
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What are the S.I.N.S of an injury?

Severity

Irritability

Nature

Stage

73
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What is involved in the severity portion of SINS?

  • Signs and symptoms

  • Grades OR mild, moderate, and severe

  • Dictates whether you need more extensive testing

74
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What is involved in the irritability portion of SINS?

  • Pain scale (1-10)

  • Injury stage (acute vs. chronic)

  • Structures involved

75
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What is involved in the nature portion of SINS?

The sttructure involved (sprain vs. strain vs. fracture)

76
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What is involved in the stage portion of SINS?

Acute vs. chronic

  • 7-10 days acute

  • 4-6 weeks subacute

  • 6-8 weeks - several months chronic

77
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As a general rule, the less irritable the injury is, the more…

Detailed your evaluation can be

78
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How might signs and symptoms of an injury change depending of the nature of the injury?

Active —> strain

Passive —> sprain/fracture

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What information is obtained from each?

Subjective: information provided by athlete

Objective: information gathered from special tests or other assessments performed by the clinician

80
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How do clinicians obtain information during the subjective portion of the examination?

Ask questions

81
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What is the goal of a comparable sign?

To recreate the feeling an athlete is feeling during play to better understand that affected structure

82
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Why is it important to make bilateral comparisons during an injury assessment?

It gives a baseline and allows you to begin mirroring

83
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What questions should you ask about the contralateral limb during the subjective component of the assessment? Why is it important?

Is there a previous injury in order to know if the baseline has been impacted

84
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How might changes in the patient position change the result of the objective exam? Give an example

  • Length-tension relationship

  • The longer the muscle is stretched, the weaker

  • Ex. if the knee is too bent, the hamstrings can create a fake end feel for the ACL test

85
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What can you observe for throughout an injury assessment?

  • Redness

  • Heat

  • Support

  • Mood/demeanor

  • Actively moving or limp

  • Eximosis (bruising)

  • Limping

  • Cognition

  • Breathing

  • Atrophy or hypertrophy

86
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What things can you palpate for throughout an injury assessment?

  • Deformity

  • Spasm

  • Moisture

  • General contour of structure

  • Pulse

  • Clammy skin

87
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What is active range of motion?

The patient is moving the joint on their own

88
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What is passive range of motion?

The clinician moves the joint for the patient

89
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What is an “end-feel”? What are the different categories of an end-feel?

Where the movement stops

  • hard —> elbow ext

  • firm —> finger ext

  • soft —> elbow flex

90
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What is the difference between manual muscle testing and resisted range of motion?

MMT: bring them to a certain range and try to bring them out

  • Incorporates full ROM against gravity and the muscle against resistance

RROM: provide resistance throughout the full range of motion

  • Resistance based on muscle length

91
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What is the difference between laxity and instability?

Laxity is objective and instability is subjective

92
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What are the three ways to test the stability of a joint?

  • Stress test

  • Joint play

  • Selective tissue test

93
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What is a stress test?

Used to identify presence of joint laxity, graded on a three degree scale based on the amount that the joint opens and the quality of the endpoint

94
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What is joint play?

A gliding or distracting stress applied and the relative amount of movement is asessed, looking for any arthrokinematic restrictions

95
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What is a selective tissue test?

Unique to each structure, joint, or system typically not graded, but considered “positive” or “negative” relative to the other side

  • ex. lochman’s test for the ACL

96
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What types of visual signs may be present if a subject has compromised vascularization?

  • Cyanosis

  • Paleness

  • Cold

  • Peripheral edema

  • Inflammation

97
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What is a S.O.A.P note?

Subjective

Objective

Assessment

Plan

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What is involved in the subjective aspect of a SOAP note?

What the patient tells us

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What is involved in the objective aspect of a SOAP note?

What the physical exam found

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What is involved in the assessment aspect of a SOAP note?

Differential diagnosis