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Last updated 9:04 AM on 4/16/26
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195 Terms

1
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PHP 16,000

What surgical procedure for the most common cause of visual impairment in the Philippines is covered by a specific PhilHealth benefit?

2
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PHP 18,000

A glaucoma patient requires a procedure covered by a PhilHealth package; which surgical intervention does this likely include along with PF and HCI costs for fistulization or trephination?

3
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SDG 5

Efforts to address the higher prevalence of vision impairment among women primarily support which specific Sustainable Development Goal?

4
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Engineering controls

In the hierarchy of controls, where does the installation of hand tool guards to deflect flying particles rank in effectiveness compared to administrative controls?

5
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15 minutes

A worker suffers a chemical splash from a solvent; what is the minimum duration they must flush their eyes while keeping them wide open to prevent permanent damage?

6
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Rigid shield without pressure

A construction worker presents with a metal shard embedded in his eyelid; what is the correct first aid management before transport to a medical facility?

7
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Cold compress without pressure

A worker is struck in the eye by a blunt object, resulting in a contusion; what is the recommended immediate aid to reduce pain and swelling?

8
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91 or 92 dB

If an idling bulldozer produces 85 dB and the noise source is doubled twice in a specific workspace (i.e., four identical bulldozers), what is the resulting decibel level?

9
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8 hours

According to OSHA, what is the maximum permissible exposure limit (PEL) for a worker exposed to a continuous 90 dB environment?

10
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Semi-aural caps

A worker frequently transitions between a quiet office and a 100 dB manufacturing floor; which HPD is most convenient for this specific pattern despite its lower NRR?

11
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Baseline audiogram

A new employee starts at a rock quarry; within what maximum timeframe must they receive their first audiometric test to establish a reference for future shifts?

12
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Sol layer

Which specific layer of the nasal mucus blanket contains immune components like lysozyme and lactoferrin while allowing the cilia to immerse and move?

13
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Sympathetic stimulation

A patient presents with severe nasal congestion; the physiological process of blood vessel constriction to decongest the turbinates is primarily driven by which branch of the nervous system?

14
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Shortened sleep (< 6 hours)

Which behavioral factor has been evidence-based to significantly increase a person's susceptibility to viral rhinitis infections?

15
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NARES

A 30-year-old woman presents with classic allergic rhinitis symptoms, but her skin prick tests are negative and her nasal cytology shows significant eosinophilia; what is the diagnosis?

16
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Rhinitis medicamentosa

A patient who has used over-the-counter nasal sprays daily for three weeks presents with severe rebound congestion; what is the specific term for this condition?

17
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Atrophic rhinitis

A patient with a history of aggressive nasal surgery presents with a "wide open" nasal cavity, thick crusting, and foul-smelling breath; what is the diagnosis?

18
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Histamine

In the pathophysiology of allergic rhinitis, which chief mast cell product is primarily responsible for the symptoms of sneezing and itching?

19
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Leukotrienes (B4/C4/D4) and Prostaglandins (D2/E2/I2)

Which groups of inflammatory mediators released during mast cell degranulation are the primary causes of nasal blockage?

20
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Mild persistent

A patient experiences allergic rhinitis symptoms 5 days a week for over a month but reports normal sleep and no impairment at work; how is this classified under ARIA?

21
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Rhinovirus and Adenovirus

Which two viral agents together account for approximately 40–50% of all infectious cases of sore throat?

22
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ACE2

Through which specific cell surface protein receptor does the SARS-CoV-2 virus gain entry into the respiratory epithelium?

23
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Modified McIsaac Scoring

A physician is evaluating a 10-year-old with a sore throat; which clinical scoring system specifically accounts for the patient's age to predict GABHS risk?

24
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Culture of throat swab in sheep agar

What is considered the gold standard for the laboratory diagnosis of bacterial pharyngitis due to its 90–95% sensitivity?

25
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Starting antibiotics within 9 days

What is the critical intervention window for a patient with GABHS pharyngitis to prevent the development of Acute Rheumatic Fever?

26
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Peritonsillar abscess (Quinsy)

A patient with a history of strep throat presents with a "potato voice" and severe throat pain; what is the most likely suppurative complication?

27
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Lemiérre’s Syndrome

A 19-year-old presents with sepsis and a tender neck following a sore throat; imaging shows suppuration of the jugular vein. Which rare syndrome is most likely?

28
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Fusobacterium necrophorum

What is the specific etiologic agent responsible for the postanginal sepsis and metastatic lung infections seen in Lemiérre’s Syndrome?

29
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Woody edema of the tongue

In a patient with Ludwig’s Angina starting from an infected molar, what is the hallmark physical finding that leads to airway obstruction?

30
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Croup

A 3-year-old presents at night with a barking cough and stridor; which subglottic infection is the most likely clinical diagnosis?

31
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Steeple sign

On an AP neck X-ray of a child with a barking cough, what classic radiographic sign indicates narrowing of the subglottic tracheal air shadow?

32
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Acute Epiglottitis

A patient presents sitting forward and drooling with a "cherry red" structure seen on laryngoscopy; what is the diagnosis?

33
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Thumbprint sign

What is the key diagnostic finding on a lateral neck X-ray for a patient with suspected Haemophilus influenzae type B supraglottic infection?

34
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Rifampicin

A child is diagnosed with Hib-associated epiglottitis; which antibiotic should be administered to the household contacts as prophylaxis?

35
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Staphylococcus aureus

What is the most common infectious etiologic agent for both internal and external hordeolums?

36
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Chalazion

A patient presents with a non-healing granulomatous inflammation of the Meibomian gland that requires drainage; what is this called?

37
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Adenovirus

What is the most common viral pathogen responsible for conjunctivitis, often presenting with a "gritty" sensation and preauricular lymphadenopathy?

38
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Hyperacute Bacterial Conjunctivitis

A patient presents with severe ocular pain and copious discharge; what is the diagnosis, given the risk of progression to meningitis?

39
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Neisseria gonorrhoeae

Which pathogen is the primary cause of Ophthalmia Neonatorum, typically transmitted through the birth canal during delivery?

40
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Trachoma

Which condition, caused by Chlamydia trachomatis serotypes A–C, involves pannus formation and is the leading cause of preventable blindness?

41
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McCoy cell cultures

What is the gold standard diagnostic method for identifying Chlamydia trachomatis in a patient with suspected inclusion conjunctivitis?

42
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Acanthamoeba Keratitis

A contact lens wearer presents with photophobia and intense eye pain out of proportion to redness; what is the likely diagnosis?

43
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Trigeminal ganglion

Where does the Herpes Simplex Virus 1 (HSV-1) reside during its latent phase before reactivating to cause corneal ulcers?

44
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Toxoplasma gondii

What obligate intracellular coccidian parasite is the most common cause of posterior uveitis?

45
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Acute post cataract surgery

What is the most common clinical event leading to the development of Endophthalmitis?

46
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Bacillus cereus

Which saprophytic, motile, and hemolytic Gram-positive rod is a major concern in endophthalmitis following penetrating eye trauma?

47
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Pseudomonas aeruginosa

What is the predominant etiologic agent for both acute and chronic diffuse otitis externa?

48
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Granulation tissue

What hallmark physical finding located at the posteroinferior ear canal wall distinguishes invasive otitis externa in diabetic patients?

49
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Skull base osteomyelitis

What is the most dangerous potential bone complication resulting from the extension of malignant otitis externa?

50
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Eustachian tube dysfunction

What is the primary underlying physiological failure that leads to the development of Otitis Media?

51
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Bulging tympanic membrane

What is the most characteristic physical finding on otoscopy for a patient with symptomatic acute otitis media?

52
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Cholesteatoma

In active chronic otitis media, what keratinic debris formation has the potential to erode bone and promote meningitis?

53
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Mastoiditis

A patient with untreated otitis media presents with a displaced pinna and swelling at the mastoid process; what is the diagnosis?

54
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50–60%

What percentage of acute bacterial rhinosinusitis cases are caused by the combination of Streptococcus pneumoniae and non-typable H. influenzae?

55
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Maxillary sinus

In which paranasal sinus does rhinosinusitis most commonly occur, often causing pain that is heavier when prone?

56
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Aspergillus

Which saprobe is the most common cause of noninvasive chronic fungal sinusitis, often forming a "fungus ball"?

57
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11% decrease

Comparing the 2018 Philippine Eye Disease Study to the 2002 survey, what was the reported change in cataract prevalence?

58
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Non-ionized radiation (NIR)

A welder works without goggles and develops a "sunburn" of the cornea; which category of occupational hazard does this light source fall under?

59
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Sound level meter

Which device would an OSH officer use to obtain an immediate measurement of sound intensity in a specific high-noise work area?

60
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Personal dosimeter

Which device is used to measure the average noise exposure over an 8-hour shift for a chosen sample population?

61
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In-ear dosimeter

What is the only noise measurement device that provides a real measure of the personal noise dose an individual worker is receiving?

62
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Earmuffs

Which HPD is preferred for high-frequency noise protection but can be uncomfortable in hot environments?

63
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Foam insert earplugs

Which inexpensive HPD provides better protection at lower frequencies but requires strict hand hygiene?

64
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65–70 dB

Below what decibel level is the use of hearing protection considered "overprotection," potentially creating a safety risk?

65
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1–2%

What percentage of viral rhinitis cases typically progress to a secondary bacterial infection?

66
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Staphylococcus, Streptococcus, and H. influenzae

What are the three most common bacterial pathogens that take advantage of viral damage to the epithelium in bacterial rhinitis?

67
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Mucormycosis

An uncontrolled diabetic with ketoacidosis presents with orbital swelling and inability to move the eye; which acute fungal infection is likely?

68
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Broad aseptate hyaline hyphae branching at acute angles

What is the characteristic microscopic finding on a KOH wet mount for a patient with rhinocerebral mucormycosis?

69
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MRI (or CT scan)

Which imaging modality shows hyperintensities in the sinuses on T2 axial sequences for fungal rhinosinusitis?

70
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Rhinovirus

Which virus is the most common cause of the common cold but has no vaccine due to having over 150 serotypes?

71
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Enterovirus

To which specific subgroup of the Picornaviridae family does the Coxsackie virus belong?

72
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Group A Beta-hemolytic Streptococcus (GAS)

Which pathogen is the most important bacterial cause of pharyngitis, accounting for 15% of adult cases?

73
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Streptolysin O

Which specific hemolysin produced by GAS is antigenic and used in ASO titers to determine previous infection?

74
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Acute glomerulonephritis

Which non-suppurative complication of GABHS pharyngitis has an incidence that is not affected by antibiotic treatment?

75
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Bacteroides spp.

What is the primary etiologic agent of Vincent’s Angina, a condition also characterized by halitosis?

76
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Submandibular and sublingual spaces

Cellulitis of which two anatomical spaces characterizes the clinical presentation of Ludwig’s Angina?

77
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Neisseria meningitidis and Neisseria gonorrhoeae

Which two Gram-negative diplococci are the primary causes of Hyperacute Bacterial Conjunctivitis?

78
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Elementary Body

In the developmental cycle of Chlamydia, which form is considered the infectious stage?

79
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Reticulate Body

In the developmental cycle of Chlamydia, which form is the non-infectious, replicating intracellular stage?

80
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Serotype D-K

Which specific serotypes of Chlamydia trachomatis are responsible for causing inclusion conjunctivitis?

81
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Slit lamp microscopy

What is the primary diagnostic tool used in a clinic to identify Acanthamoeba keratitis?

82
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Treponema pallidum

Which motile spirochete is responsible for syphilitic uveitis and cannot be grown in artificial media?

83
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Tachyzoite

Which form of Toxoplasma gondii is the active, rapidly multiplying stage found during an acute infection?

84
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Oocyst

Which form of Toxoplasma gondii is shed in cat feces and can cause infection in humans if ingested?

85
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Chorioretinal scar

What is the classic fundoscopic finding characteristic of a previous congenital Toxoplasma infection?

86
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Aqueous and vitreous humor

Endophthalmitis is defined as an infection of the internal structures of the eye containing which two fluids?

87
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Bacterial endocarditis

Endophthalmitis can occur via hematogenous seeding (Roth's spots) from which systemic condition?

88
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10-20%

What percentage of work-related eye injuries result in temporary or permanent vision loss?

89
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Elimination

Which hierarchy of control is demonstrated by replacing welding with adhesive bonding?

90
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Substitution

Which safety control is used when incandescent lighting is replaced with LEDs to protect against NIR?

91
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20-20-20 rule

Which administrative control requires looking 20 feet away for 20 seconds every 20 minutes to prevent digital strain?

92
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ANSI Z87.1

Protective eyewear must be marked with "Z87," indicating compliance with which specific standard?

93
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10 feet or 10 seconds

An eyewash station must be located within what maximum distance or travel time from a hazardous work process?

94
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Corneal abrasion

What is the specific medical term for a scratch on the cornea caused by a fingernail or dirt?

95
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Welder’s flash burn

A worker walking near a welding operation unprotected develops pain and light sensitivity; what is the diagnosis?

96
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1000x/min

At what coordinated frequency do nasal cilia beat to move the gel layer posteriorly towards the nasopharynx?

97
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C-fibers

The symptoms of pruritus and sneezing in rhinitis are caused by the stimulation of which specific nerve endings?

98
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Venous sinusoidal engorgement

Nasal obstruction is primarily caused by the pooling of blood in turbinate capacitance vessels; what is this called?

99
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Zinc lozenge

Which medication, if taken within 24 hours of cold symptom onset, may reduce the duration of the infection?

100
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Hormonal rhinitis

What type of rhinitis affects approximately 22% of pregnant women, causing persistent congestion?