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Primary and secondary
What two categories of conditions are included in disorders of lipoprotein metabolism (dyslipidemia)?
Acute pancreatitis and atherosclerosis
What are the two major clinical sequelae of dyslipidemia?
Lipids and proteins
What two components form the large macromolecular complex known as lipoproteins?
Triglycerides and cholesteryl esters
What two components form the hydrophobic core of lipoproteins?
Phospholipids, unesterified cholesterol, and apolipoproteins
What three components surround the hydrophobic core of lipoproteins?
Five or six
How many major classes of lipoproteins are there?
Inverse
What is the relationship between the relative density and size of lipoprotein classes?
Bigger, more buoyant, and less dense
What three physical characteristics increase as the triglyceride content of a lipoprotein increases?
Denser and smaller in size
What two physical characteristics result when a lipoprotein particle is stripped of triglycerides and has more proteins?
Pro-atherogenic
What category describes all lipoprotein classes except HDL?
Anti-atherogenic
What category describes HDL lipoprotein?
Endogenous, exogenous, and reverse cholesterol transport
What are the three pathways involved in lipoprotein metabolism?
Chylomicron remnants
What is the end product of the exogenous pathway?
LDL
What is the final product of the endogenous pathway?
Reverse cholesterol transport pathway
What pathway transports peripheral cholesterol stores back to the liver for excretion to the bile?
Lipid-lowering agents
What category of drugs inhibits the HMG CoA reductase pathway?
Reductase inhibitors, fibric acid derivatives, niacin, bile acid-binding resins, and sterol absorption inhibitors
What five categories of conventional drugs are used for dyslipidemia?
PCSK9 inhibitor, MTP inhibitor, antisense oligonucleotide, and omega fatty acids
What four categories of other agents are used for dyslipidemia?
Class I, Class II, Class III, and Class IV
What are the four classes in the Vaughan Williams classification of antiarrhythmic drugs?
Class IA, Class IB, and Class IC
What are the three subclasses of Class I sodium channel blocking drugs?
Disturbance in impulse formation, disturbance in impulse conduction, and re-entry of circus movement
What are the three mechanisms that cause arrhythmia (or dysrhythmia)?
Supraventricular and ventricular
What two categories are used to classify arrhythmias according to their location?
Primary arrhythmias and secondary arrhythmias
What two categories are used to classify arrhythmias based on underlying cause?
Beta blockade
What is the mechanism of action for Class II antiarrhythmics?
Potassium channel blockade
What is the mechanism of action for Class III antiarrhythmics?
Calcium channel blockade
What is the mechanism of action for Class IV antiarrhythmics?
Moderate reduction in phase zero, increase in APD and ERP
What are the three effects of Class IA sodium channel blockade?
Weak reduction in phase zero, decrease in APD and ERP
What are the three effects of Class IB sodium channel blockade?
Strong reduction in phase zero, no effect on APD and ERP
What are the three effects of Class IC sodium channel blockade?
Phase zero, one, two, three, and four
What are the five phases in the action potential of cardiac muscle cells?
Phase zero, three, and four
What are the three phases in the action potential of specialized conducting cells (pacemaker cells)?
Rapid sodium influx
What ion movement causes Phase zero (rapid depolarization) in cardiac muscle action potential?
Potassium efflux and calcium influx
What two ion movements occur during Phase two (plateau stage) in cardiac muscle action potential?
Potassium efflux
What ion movement causes Phase three (rapid repolarization) in cardiac muscle action potential?
Rapid calcium influx
What ion movement causes Phase zero (depolarization) in pacemaker cell action potential?
Slow sodium influx
What ion movement causes Phase four (pre-potential) in pacemaker cell action potential, which confers automaticity?
Decrease
What is the primary effect of statins on LDL cholesterol?
Minimal reduction
What is the effect of statins on triglycerides?
Slight increase
What is the effect of statins on HDL cholesterol?
Lower LDL
What is the principal effect of reductase inhibitors (statins)?
Decrease triglycerides and slightly increase HDL
What are the two main effects of fibric acid derivatives (fibrates)?
Increase HDL and decrease triglycerides, LDL, and Lipoprotein A
What are the four effects of Niacin on lipid profile?
Decrease LDL
What is the primary effect of cholesterol absorption inhibitors (Ezetimibe)?
Decrease LDL, increase triglycerides, and small increase in HDL
What are the three main effects of bile acid-binding resins?
Reduction of serum triglyceride levels
What is the primary effect of n-3/Omega Fatty Acids?
Massive reduction in LDL, increase in HDL, and decrease in TG and Lp(a)
What are the four effects of PCSK9 inhibitors on lipid profile?
Reduction of LDL cholesterol
What is the primary effect of MTP inhibitors (Lomitapide)?
Reduction in the production of atherogenic lipids (LDL and lipoprotein A)
What is the net result of Mipomersen's mechanism of action?
Reduction in LDL
What is the primary effect of Inclisiran (RNAi Inhibitor of PCSK9)?
Reduction in LDL
What is the primary effect of Bempedoic Acid (ATP Citrate Lyase Inhibitor)?
White clot
What type of clot forms inside arteries, consisting mostly of platelets?
Red clot
What type of clot forms inside veins, characterized by fibrin trapping red blood cells?
High pressure and high velocity
What two blood flow characteristics are seen in the arterial system, promoting white clot formation?
Low pressure and low velocity
What two blood flow characteristics are seen in the venous system, allowing time for fibrin clot formation (secondary hemostasis)?
Artery
Which type of thrombosis problem suggests giving agents to address platelets?
Vein
Which type of thrombosis problem suggests giving agents directed at secondary hemostasis?
Inhibition of aggregation of platelets
What is the general mechanism of action of antiplatelet drugs?
Inhibition of conversion of arachidonic acid to TXA2
What is the mechanism of action of Aspirin and NSAIDs?
Inhibition of ADP-induced platelet aggregation
What is the mechanism of action of Thienopyridines?
Inhibition of the crosslinking by fibrinogen between different platelets
What is the mechanism of action of Glycoprotein IIB/IIIA Inhibitors?
Irreversible inhibition of COX-1 and COX-2
What is the specific mechanism of action of Aspirin?
Inhibition of phosphodiesterase (PDE)
What is the primary mechanism of PDE and Adenosine Uptake Inhibitors?
Increases cAMP and reduces calcium
What is the effect of PDE inhibition?
Inhibition of the synthesis of protein C and clotting factors X, IX, VII, and II
What is the mechanism of action of Vitamin K antagonists (Warfarin)?
Depletion of protein C
What specific effect of Warfarin causes an initial prothrombotic effect?
Activation of antithrombin III
What is the mechanism of action of Heparin and Low Molecular Weight Heparin (LMWH)?
Mostly in inhibition of Factor X, not much to thrombin
What is the primary action of LMWH after activating Antithrombin III?
Mostly inhibits Factor X and partly inhibits thrombin
What is the primary action of Antithrombin III after activation by Heparin?
Direct thrombin inhibition
What is the mechanism of action of Argatroban, Bivalirudin, and Dabigatran?
Direct inhibition of Factor Xa
What is the mechanism of action of Rivaroxaban, Apixaban, and Edoxaban?
Competitive inhibition of plasminogen activation
What is the mechanism of action of epsilon Aminocaproic Acid and Tranexamic Acid?
Binding with plasminogen to become plasmin
What is the mechanism of fibrinolytic agents (e.g., Streptokinase, Alteplase)?
Fibrin degradation
What is the primary effect of Plasmin in clot dissolution?
Factor VIII release from the endothelium
What is the mechanism of action of Desmopressin?
Thrombin burst provision
What is the mechanism of action of Recombinant Factor VIIA (rFVIIa)?
Provision of activated clotting factors II, V, and X
What is the mechanism of action of FEIBA and aPCC?
Increases in serum aminotransferase activity
What adverse effect is occasionally seen in patients on statin therapy, often intermittent?
More than three times the upper limit of normal (ULN)
At what level of liver function test elevation should statin discontinuation be considered?
Myalgia, myopathy, myositis, and rhabdomyolysis
What are the four classifications of statin-induced muscle disorders?
Rhabdomyolysis
What is the most severe form of statin myopathy?
Increased risk of myopathy
What is the consequence of Gemfibrozil inhibiting the uptake of active hydroxy forms of statins?
Vasodilation
What side effect can result from PDE and Adenosine Uptake Inhibitors?
Bleeding
What is the primary side effect of all anti-clotting drugs (antiplatelets, anticoagulants, and fibrinolytics)?
Thrombosis
What is a side effect associated with the use of rFVIIa, epsilon Aminocaproic Acid, Tranexamic Acid, FEIBA, and aPCC?
Flushing and dyspepsia
What are the two most common side effects that limit patient compliance to Niacin therapy?
Prostaglandin effect
What is the cause of flushing, the common side effect of Niacin?
Minimal adverse effects
What is the general profile of adverse effects for Ezetimibe?
Constipation and bloating
What are the two most common adverse effects of bile acid-binding resins?
Malabsorption of Vitamin K and Folic Acid
What are two specific nutrient deficiencies that can be caused by bile acid-binding resins?
GI disturbance and anti-thrombotic effect
What are the two main side effects of n-3/Omega Fatty Acids?
Local injection reactions and flu-like symptoms
What are two common side effects of PCSK9 inhibitors and Mipomersen?
Liver toxicity (or hepatic steatosis)
What is the main concern or side effect associated with Mipomersen?
Hyperuricemia and tendon rupture
What are the two side effects of Bempedoic Acid?
Sinus arrest
What is a result of a disturbance in impulse formation?
AV block
What is an example of a disturbance in impulse conduction?
Ventricular tachycardia and supraventricular tachycardias
What two types of arrhythmias often involve re-entry of circus movement?
Ischemia and excessive myocardial fiber stretch
What are two physical factors that precipitate cardiac arrhythmias?
Excessive discharge or sensitivity to autonomic transmitters and excessive exposure to foreign chemicals
What are two chemical factors that precipitate cardiac arrhythmias?
Bradycardia
What condition is primarily treated with an implanted pacemaker?
Ventricular tachycardia and ventricular fibrillation
What two conditions are the primary indications for an Implantable Cardioverter Defibrillator (ICD)?