ap psychology multiple choice exam questions

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234 Terms

1
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Which of the following is best defined as a relatively permanent change in behavior due to experience?

A) acquisition

B) stimulus

C) learning

D) habituation

E) response

C) learning

2
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Lynn is teaching learning. Every time she claps her hands, Charlie turns off the light. When Randy claps in approval of Lynn's presentation, Charlie does not turn the light off. What concept has Charlie demonstrated?

A) habituation

B) discrimination

C) spontaneous recovery

D) extinction

E) habituation

B) discrimination

3
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Classical conditioning is the type of learning in which a person links two or more stimuli and

A) forgets about them

B) lays them out in sequence

C) shuts down

D) anticipates events

E) receives a reward

D) anticipates events

4
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In classical conditioning, the unconditioned stimulus

A) naturally triggers a response

B) is a naturally occurring response

C) is initially irrelevant, and then comes to trigger a response

D) objectively studies psychology

E) is Pavlovian

A) naturally triggers a response

5
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Students are accustomed to a bell ringing to indicate the end of a class period. The principal decides to substitute popular music for the bell to indicate the end of each class period. Students quickly respond to the music in the same way they did to the bell. What principle does this illustrate?

A) acquisition

B) habituation

C) generalization

D) functional fixedness

E) stimulus

C) generalization

6
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The work of Ivan Pavlov and John Watson fits best into which of psychology's perspectives?

A) humanism

B) gestalt psychology

C) trait theory

D) behaviorism

E) neuropsychology

D) behaviorism

7
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What do we call the kind of learning in which behavior is strengthened if followed by a reinforcer?

A) operant condition

B) respondent behavior

C) classical condition

D) shaping

E) punishment

A) operant condition

8
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Which of the following best describes a discriminative stimulus?

A) something that elicits a response after association with a reinforcer

B) innately reinforcing stimulus

C) something that when removed increases the likelihood of the behavior

D) an event that decreases the behavior it follows

E) an amplified stimulus feeding back information to responses

A) something that elicits a response after association with a reinforcer

9
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Thorndike's principle that behaviors followed by favorable consequences become more likely is known as what?

A) law of effect

B) operant condition

C) shaping

D) respondent behavior

E) discrimination

A) law of effect

10
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All of the following are examples of primary reinforces except a

A) rat's food reward in Skinner box

B) cold drink on hot day

C) high score on exam for which student studied diligently

D) hug from loved one

E) large meal following fast

C) high scores on exam for which student studied diligently

11
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What do we call it when the CR decreases as the CS is repeatedly presented alone?

A) generalization

B) discrimination

C) spontaneous recovery

D) extinction

E) acquisition

D) extinction

12
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The basic idea behind classical condition is that the organism

A) associates events

B) associates behavior and resulting events

C) voluntarily operates on the environment

D) associates response with a consequence

E) quits responding when reward stops

A) associates events

13
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What do we call the reappearance, after a rest period, of an extinguished response?

a. acquisition

b. spontaneous recovery

c. discrimination

d. operant conditioning

e. classical conditioning

B) spontaneous recovery

14
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What do we call behavior that occurs as an automatic response to some stimulus?

A) respondent behavior

B) operant behavior

C) extinguished behavior

D) biofeedback condition

E) skinnerian conditioning

A) respondent behavior

15
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Superstitious behavior can be produced by

A) careful manipulation of a classical conditioning experiment

B) the accidental timing of rewards

C) possession of a large number of traditionally lucky items

D) cognitive awareness of superstitious behavior in others

E) the change in a reinforcement schedule from ratio to interval

B) the accidental timing of rewards

16
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What do we call a desire to perform a behavior in order to receive promised rewards or to avoid threatened punishment?

A) latent learning

B) extrinsic motivation

C) intrinsic motivation

D) insight learning

E) emotion-focused coping

B) extrinsic motivation

17
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Which ability is a good predictor of good adjustment, better grades, and social success?

A) self-control

B) locus of control

C) problem-focused coping

D) learned helplessness

E) emotion-focused coping

A) self-control

18
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Elephants appear to have the capacity to remember large-scale spaces over long periods. Which of the following best identifies this capacity?

A) latent learning

B) insight

C) cognitive maps

D) intrinsic motivation

E) extrinsic motivation

C) cognitive maps

19
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The perception that we control our fate is also called what?

A) self-control

B) learned helplessness

C) internal locus of control

D) external locus of control

E) emotion-focused coping

C) internal locus of control

20
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A woman had been pondering a problem for days and was about to give up when, suddenly, the solution came to her. Her experience can be described as what?

A) cognitive mapping

B) insight

C) operant condition

D) classical condition

E) unconscious associative-learning

B) insight

21
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Bandura's famous Bobo doll experiment is most closely associated with which?

A) latent learning

B) classical conditioning

C) operant conditioning

D) cognitive maps

E) observational learning

E) observational learning

22
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Which of the following processes is the best term for explaining how we learn languages?

A) biofeedback

B) discrimination

C) modeling

D) insight

E) creativity

C) modeling

23
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Which of the following is the most likely consequence of the brain's tendency to vicariously experience something we observe?

A) actual physical injury

B) risk of misremembering our own actions

C) interference with associative learning

D) elimination of classical conditioned responses to stimuli

E) a confusion between reinforces and rewards in operant conditioning setting

B) risk of misremembering our own actions

24
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When is prosocial modeling most effective?

A) when the model acts in a way consistent with the prosocial lesson

B) when the model verbally emphasizes the prosocial lesson but acts as she chooses

C) when the model is predisposed to the prosocial conduct

D) when the observer has a close personal relationship with the model

E) when the model is well-known

A) when the model acts in a way consistent with the prosocial lesson

25
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Which of the following is the best synonym for social learning?

A) observational learning

B) modeling

C) mirror neuron imitation

D) prosocial model

E) imitation

A) observational learning

26
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What do we call awareness of our environment and ourselves?

A) Selective attention

B) Hypnotism

C) Posthypnotic suggestion

D) Dissociation

E) Consciousness

E) Consciousness

27
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Which of the following is true about daydreaming?

A) It occurs spontaneously.

B) It is physiologically induced.

C) It is psychologically induced.

D) It is considered the same as waking awareness.

E) It is more like meditation than it is like dreaming.

A) It occurs spontaneously.

28
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Which of the following states of consciousness occurs when one person suggests to another that certain thoughts or behaviors will spontaneously occur?

A) Dreaming

B) Hypnosis

C) Daydreaming

D) Hallucination

E) Waking awareness

B) Hypnosis

29
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Which of the following is the term most closely associated with the split in consciousness that allows some thoughts and behaviors to occur simultaneously with others?

A) Consciousness

B) Hypnosis

C) Hallucination

D) Dissociation

E) Meditation

D) Dissociation

30
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Which of the following represents a circadian rhythm?

A) A burst of growth occurs during puberty.

B) A full Moon occurs about once a month.

C) Body temperature rises each day as morning approaches.

D) When it is summer in the northern hemisphere, it is winter in the southern hemisphere.

E) Pulse rate increases when we exercise.

C) Body temperature rises each day as morning approaches.

31
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In which stage of sleep are you likely to experience hypnagogic sensations of falling?

A) Alpha sleep

B) NREM-1

C) NREM-2

D) NREM-3

E) REM

B) NREM-1

32
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What is the role of the suprachiasmatic nucleus (SCN) in

sleep?

A) It induces REM sleep approximately every 90 minutes

during sleep.

B) It causes the pineal gland to increase the production of melatonin.

C) It causes the pituitary gland to increase the release of human growth hormone.

D) It causes the pituitary gland to decrease the release of human growth hormone.

E) It causes the pineal gland to decrease the production of melatonin.

B) It causes the pineal gland to increase the production of melatonin.

33
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Which of the following sleep theories emphasizes sleep's

role in restoring and repairing brain tissue?

A) Memory

B) Protection

C) Growth

D) Recuperation

E) Creativity

D) Recuperation

34
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Sleep deprivation can lead to weight gain, reduced muscle strength, suppression of the cells that fight common colds, and most likely which of the following?

A) Increased productivity

B) Depression

C) Decreased mistakes on homework

D) Increased feeling of well-being

E) Sleep apnea

B) Depression

35
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What do we call the sleep disorder that causes you to stop breathing and awaken in order to take a breath?

A) Narcolepsy

B) Insomnia

C) Sleep apnea

D) Nightmares

E) Night terrors

C) Sleep apnea

36
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Which of the following dream theories states that dreams help us sort out the day's events and consolidate our memories?

A) Information-processing

B) Wish-fulfillment

C) Physiological function

D) Neural activation

E) Neural disconnection

A) Information-processing

37
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According to research, which of the following are we most likely to experience after sleep deprivation?

A) Night terrors

B) Sleep apnea

C) Manifest content dreams

D) Narcolepsy

E) REM rebound

E) REM rebound

38
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Which of the following represents drug tolerance?

A) Hans has grown to accept the fact that his wife likes to have a beer with her dinner, even though he personally does not approve of the use of alcohol.

B) Jose often wakes up with a headache that lasts until he has his morning cup of coffee.

C) Pierre enjoys the effect of marijuana and is now using the drug several times a week.

D) Jacob had to increase the dosage of his pain medication when the old dosage no longer effectively controlled the pain from his chronic back condition.

E) Chau lost his job and is now homeless as a result of his drug use.

D) Jacob had to increase the dosage of his pain medication when the old dosage no longer effectively controlled the pain from his chronic back condition.

39
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Which of the following drugs is classified as an opiate?

A) Nicotine

B) Marijuana

C) Heroin

D) Methamphetamine

E) Cocaine

C) Heroin

40
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Which of the following drugs produces effects similar to a near-death experience?

A) Ecstasy

B) Nicotine

C) Barbiturate

D) Methamphetamine

E) LSD

E) LSD

41
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Which of the following statements is true of alcohol?

A) Alcohol is a stimulant because it produces insomnia.

B) Alcohol is a depressant because it produces bipolar

disorder.

C) Alcohol is a stimulant because people do foolish things while under its influence.

D) Alcohol is a depressant because it calms neural activity and slows body function.

E) Alcohol is a stimulant because it increases instances of casual sex.

D) Alcohol is a depressant because it calms neural activity and slows body function.

42
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Sudden sleep attacks at inopportune times are symptomatic of which sleep disorder?

A) Sleep apnea

B) Insomnia

C) Night terrors

D) Sleepwalking

E) Narcolepsy

E) Narcolepsy

43
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Deep sleep occurs in which stage?

A) Hypnagogic

B) REM

C) Alpha

D) NREM-1

E) Delta

E) Delta

44
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Recurring problems in falling asleep or staying asleep are

characteristic of which sleep disorder?

A) Sleep apnea

B) Narcolepsy

C) Insomnia

D) Sleep talking

E) Sleepwalking

C) Insomnia

45
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What is the pineal gland's role in sleep?

A) Activating the suprachiasmatic nucleus

B) The production of melatonin

C) The location of hypnagogic images

D) Remembering dreams upon waking

E) Emitting alpha waves

B) The production of melatonin

46
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What are bursts of rapid, rhythmic brain-wave activity that occur during NREM-2 sleep?

A) Hallucinations

B) Circadian rhythms

C) Alpha waves

D) Sleep spindles

E) Delta waves

D) Sleep spindles

47
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Increasing amounts of paradoxical sleep following a period of sleep deprivation is known as what?

A) Circadian sleep

B) Sleep shifting

C) Narcolepsy

D) Sleep apnea

E) REM rebound

E) REM rebound

48
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Which of these drugs, which acts as both a stimulant and a hallucinogen, can also cause dangerous dehydration?

A) LSD

B) Ecstasy

C) Alcohol

D) Cocaine

E) Caffeine

B) Ecstasy

49
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Recent research most consistently supports the effectiveness of hypnosis in which of the following

areas?

A) Pain relief

B) Recovery of lost memories

C) Reduction of sleep deprivation

D) Forcing people to act against their will

E) Cessation of smoking

A) Pain relief

50
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What are the three major categories of drugs?

A) Hallucinogens, depressants, and stimulants

B) Stimulants, barbiturates, and hallucinogens

C) Amphetamines, barbiturates, and opiates

D) MDMA, LSD, and THC

E) Alcohol, caffeine, and nicotine

A) Hallucinogens, depressants, and stimulants

51
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Jarod's muscles are relaxed, his body is basically paralyzed, and he is hard to awaken. Which sleep state is Jarod probably experiencing?

A) Sleep apnea

B) Hypnagogic

C) Paradoxical

D) Delta

E) Sleep deprivation

C) Paradoxical

52
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The effects of opiates are similar to the effects of which

neurotransmitter?

A) Barbiturates

B) Endorphins

C) Tranquilizers

D) Nembutal

E) Acetylcholine

B) Endorphins

53
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Slowed reactions, slurred speech, and decreased skill performance are associated with abuse of which drug?

A) Nicotine

B) Methamphetamine

C) Caffeine

D) Alcohol

E) Ecstasy

D) Alcohol

54
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What term did Ernest Hilgard use to describe a split between different levels of consciousness?

A) Hypnagogic imagery

B) REM sleep

C) Delta waves

D) Spindles

E) Dissociation

E) Dissociation

55
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Psychologists who study the brain's activity during sleep are most likely to use which of these technologies?

A) MRI

B) CT scan

C) PET scan

D) EEG

E) EKG

D) EEG

56
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What term describes the brain's adaptation to a drug's chemistry, requiring larger and larger doses to experience the same effect?

A) Withdrawal

B) Tolerance

C) Addiction

D) Substance use disorder

E) Disinhibiting

B) Tolerance

57
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What occurs when experiences influence our interpretation of data?

A) Selective attention

B) Transduction

C) Bottom-up processing

D) Top-down processing

E) Signal detection theory

D) Top-down processing

58
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What principle states that to be perceived as different, two stimuli must differ by a minimum percentage rather than a constant amount?

A) Absolute threshold

B) Different threshold

C) Signal detection theory

D) Priming

E) Weber's law

E) Weber's law

59
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What do we call the conversion of stimulus energies, like sights and sounds, into neural impulses?

A) Transduction

B) Perception

C) Priming

D) Signal detection theory

E) Threshold

A) Transduction

60
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Natalia is washing her hands and adjusts the faucet handle until the water feels just slightly hotter than it did before. Natalia's adjustment until she feels a difference is an example of

A) a subliminal stimulus.

B) an absolute threshold.

C) a difference threshold.

D) signal detection.

E) Weber's law.

C) a difference threshold.

61
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Tyshane went swimming with friends who did not want to get into the pool because the water felt cold. Tyshane jumped in and after a few minutes declared, "It was cold when I first got in, but now my body is used to it. Come

on in!" Tyshane's body became accustomed to the water due to

A) perceptual set.

B) absolute threshold.

C) difference threshold.

D) selective attention.

E) sensory adaptation.

E) sensory adaptation.

62
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What do we call a mental predisposition that influences our interpretation of a stimulus?

A) A context effect

B) Perceptual set

C) Extrasensory perception

D) Emotion

E) Motivation

B) Perceptual set

63
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Kimberly tells her brother to put on a suit on a warm summer day. Kimberly's brother knows to put on a swimsuit instead of a business suit because of

A) context.

B) ESP.

C) precognition.

D) bottom-up processing.

E) clairvoyance.

A) context.

64
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Which of the following is produced by perceptual set?

A) Not noticing that the songs change in a restaurant

B) Noticing a difference in the weight of a friend from one week to the next

C) Moving an arm quickly so that a mosquito flies away

D) Surprise at hearing an Oklahoma cowboy speak with a British accent

E) Not noticing a watch on your wrist as the day goes on

D) Surprise at hearing an Oklahoma cowboy speak with a British accent

65
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Light's _____ is the distance from one wave peak to the next. This dimension determines the _____ we

experience.

A) hue; wavelength

B) wavelength; hue

C) hue; intensity

D) wavelength; intensity

E) intensity; wavelength

B) wavelength; hue

66
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What do we call the specialized neurons in the occipital lobe's visual cortex that respond to particular edges, lines, angles, and movements?

A) Rods

B) Cones

C) Foveas

D) Feature detectors

E) Ganglion cells

D) Feature detectors

67
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Which of the following explains reversed-color afterimages?

A) Young-Helmholtz trichromatic theory

B) The blind spot

C) Hering's opponent-process theory

D) Feature detectors

E) Parallel processing

C) Hering's opponent-process theory

68
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Your best friend decides to paint her room an extremely bright electric blue. Which of the following best fits the physical properties of the color's light waves?

A) No wavelength; large amplitude

B) Short wavelength; large amplitude

C) Short wavelength; small amplitude

D) Long wavelength; large amplitude

E) No wavelength; small amplitude

B) Short wavelength; large amplitude

69
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What do we call the transparent, protective layer that light passes through as it enters the eye?

A) Pupil

B) Iris

C) Cornea

D) Lens

E) Fovea

C) Cornea

70
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A teacher used distortion goggles, which shifted the wearer's gaze 20 degrees, to demonstrate an altered perception. A student wearing the goggles initially bumped into numerous desks and chairs while walking around, but chose to wear the goggles for a half hour. After 30 minutes, the student was able to smoothly avoid obstacles, illustrating the concept of

A) perceptual adaptation.

B) visual interpretation.

C) sensory restriction.

D) perceptual constancy.

E) binocular cues.

A) perceptual adaptation.

71
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What do we call the illusion of movement that results from two or more stationary, adjacent lights blinking on and off in quick succession?

A) Phi phenomenon

B) Perceptual constancy

C) Binocular cues

D) Retinal disparity

E) Depth perception

A) Phi phenomenon

72
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Bryanna and Charles are in a dancing competition. It is easy for spectators to see them against the dance floor because of

A) the visual cliff.

B) the phi phenomenon.

C) color constancy.

D) sensory restriction.

E) figure-ground relationships.

E) figure-ground relationships.

73
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The view from Narmeen's left eye is slightly different from the view from her right eye. This is due to which depth cue?

A) Retinal disparity

B) Relative size

C) Linear perspective

D) Relative motion

E) Convergence

A) Retinal disparity

74
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Bringing order and form to stimuli, which illustrates how the whole differs from the sum of its parts, is called

A) grouping.

B) monocular cue.

C) binocular cue.

D) disparity.

E) motion.

A) grouping.

75
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What type of hearing loss is due to damage to the mechanism that transmits sound waves to the cochlea?

A) Sensorineural

B) Window-related

C) Conduction

D) Cochlear

E) Basilar

C) Conduction

76
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Pitch depends on which of the following?

A) Amplitude of a sound wave

B) Number of hair cells stimulated

C) Strength of nerve impulses traveling up the auditory nerve

D) Number of sound waves that reach the ear in a given time

E) Decibels of a sound wave

D) Number of sound waves that reach the ear in a given time

77
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Which of the following reflects the notion that pitch is related to the number of impulses traveling up the auditory nerve in a unit of time?

A) Place theory

B) Frequency theory

C) Volley principle

D) Sound localization

E) Stereophonic hearing

B) Frequency theory

78
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The three small bones of the ear are located in the

A) cochlea.

B) outer ear.

C) inner ear.

D) middle ear.

E) auditory nerve.

D) middle ear.

79
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Sensing the position and movement of individual body

parts is an example of which sense?

A) Kinesthetic

B) Vestibular

C) Auditory

D) Umami

E) Olfactory

A) Kinesthetic

80
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Which of the following is the best example of kinesthesia?

A) Awareness of the smell of freshly brewed coffee

B) Ability to feel pressure on your arm

C) Ability to hear a softly ticking clock

D) Ability to calculate where a kicked soccer ball will land from the moment it leaves your foot

E) Awareness of the position of your arms when swimming the backstroke

E) Awareness of the position of your arms when swimming the backstroke

81
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Which of the following is the best example of sensory interaction?

A) Finding that despite its delicious aroma, a weird-looking meal tastes awful

B) Finding that food tastes bland when you have a bad cold

C) Finding it difficult to maintain your balance when you have an ear infection

D) Finding that the cold pool water doesn't feel so cold after a while

E) All of these are examples.

B) Finding that food tastes bland when you have a bad cold

82
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Which of the following is most closely associated with hairlike receptors in the semicircular canals?

A) Body position

B) Smell

C) Hearing

D) Pain

E) Touch

A) Body position

83
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What is the purpose of the iris?

A) To focus light on the retina

B) To process colour

C) To allow light into the eye

D) To enable night vision

E) To detect specific shapes

C) To allow light into the eye

84
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Neurons that fire in response to specific edges, lines, angles, and movements are called what?

A) Rods

B) Cones

C) Ganglion cells

D) Feature detectors

E) Bipolar cells

D) Feature detectors

85
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Signal detection theory is most closely associated with which perception process?

A) Vision

B) Sensory adaptation

C) Absolute thresholds

D) Smell

E) Context effects

C) Absolute thresholds

86
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Which of the following represents perceptual constancy?

A) We recognize the taste of McDonald's food each time we eat it.

B) In photos of people, the people almost always are perceived as figure and everything else as ground.

C) We know that the color of a printed page has not changed as it moves from sunlight into shadow.

D) From the time they are very young, most people can recognize the smell of a dentist's office.

E) The cold water in a lake doesn't seem so cold after you have been swimming in it for a few minutes.

C) We know that the color of a printed page has not changed as it moves from sunlight into shadow.

87
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Our tendency to see faces in clouds and other ambiguous

stimuli is partly based on what perception principle?

A) Selective attention

B) ESP

C) Perceptual set

D) Shape constancy

E) Bottom-up processing

C) Perceptual set

88
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The process by which rods and cones change electromagnetic energy into neural messages is called what?

A) Adaptation

B) Accommodation

C) Parallel processing

D) Transduction

E) Perceptual setting

D) Transduction

89
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Which of the following is most likely to influence our memory of a painful event?

A) The overall length of the event

B) The intensity of pain at the end of the event

C) The reason for the pain

D) The amount of rest you've had in the 24 hours preceding the event

E) The specific part of the body that experiences the pain

B) The intensity of pain at the end of the event

90
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Frequency theory relates to which element of the hearing process?

A) Rate at which the basilar membrane vibrates

B) Number of fibers in the auditory nerve

C) Point at which the basilar membrane exhibits the most vibration

D) Decibel level of a sound

E) Number of hair cells in each cochlea

A) Rate at which the basilar membrane vibrates

91
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Which of the following best represents an absolute threshold?

A) A guitar player knows that his D string has just gone out of tune.

B) A photographer can tell that the natural light available for a photograph has just faded slightly.

C) Your friend amazes you by correctly identifying unlabeled glasses of Coke and Pepsi.

D) A cook can just barely taste the salt she has added to her soup.

E) Your mom throws out the milk because she says the taste is "off."

D) A cook can just barely taste the salt she has added to her soup.

92
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Which of the following describes a perception process that the Gestalt psychologists would have been interested in?

A) Depth perception and how it allows us to survive in the world

B) Why we see an object near us as closer rather than larger

C) How an organized whole is formed out of its component pieces

D) What the smallest units of perception are

E) The similarities between shape constancy and size constancy

C) How an organized whole is formed out of its component pieces

93
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Which perception process are the hammer, anvil, and stirrup involved in?

A) Processing intense colors

B) Processing information related to our sense of balance

C) Supporting a structural frame to hold the eardrum

D) Transmitting sound waves to the cochlea

E) Holding hair cells that enable hearing

D) Transmitting sound waves to the cochlea

94
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Which of the following might result from a disruption of your vestibular sense?

A) Inability to detect the position of your arm without looking at it

B) Loss of the ability to detect bitter tastes

C) Dizziness and a loss of balance

D) An inability to detect pain

E) Loss of color vision

C) Dizziness and a loss of balance

95
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When we go to the movies, we see smooth continuous motion rather than a series of still images because of which process?

A) The phi phenomenon

B) Perceptual set

C) Stroboscopic movement

D) Relative motion

E) Illusory effect

C) Stroboscopic movement

96
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Two monocular depth cues are most responsible for our ability to know that a jet flying overhead is at an elevation of several miles. One cue is relative size. What is the other?

A) Relative motion

B) Retinal disparity

C) Interposition

D) Light and shadow

E) Linear perspective

A) Relative motion

97
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Which of the following phrases accurately describes top-

down processing?

A) The entry-level data captured by our various sensory systems

B) The effect that our experiences and expectations have on perception

C) Our tendency to scan a visual field from top to bottom

D) Our inclination to follow a predetermined set of steps

to process sound

E) The fact that information is processed by the higher

regions of the brain before it reaches the lower brain

B) The effect that our experiences and expectations have on perception

98
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Multiple sclerosis is a result of degeneration in the

A) dendrite.

B) axon.

C) myelin sheath.

D) terminal button.

E) neuron.

C) myelin sheath.

99
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Junita does not feel like getting out of bed, has lost her

appetite, and feels tired for most of the day. Which of the

following neurotransmitters likely is in short supply for

Junita?

A) Dopamine

B) Serotonin

C) Norephinephrine

D) Acetylcholine

E) Glutamate

B) Serotonin

100
New cards

Which neurotransmitter inhibits CNS activity in order to

calm a person down during stressful situations?

A) GABA

B) Norepinephrine

C) Acetylcholine

D) Dopamine

E) Serotonin

A) GABA