Microbiology HW Quiz Clin Path 2

A dog has been on antibiotics for three months in an attempt to eliminate a particularly bad bacterial pathogen. The client has returned to the clinic for a follow up appointment and during the PE you notice little white, fluffy lesions all over the oral mucosa of the dog. You suspect which organism is responsible?

A) Candida

B) Corynebacterium

C) Staphylococcus

D) Malassezia

A) Candida

A form of serology in which a radioactive label is attached to an antibody that then combines with a virus is called _________________________________.

A) indirect immunofluorescence

B) enzyme linked immunosorbent assay

C) direct immunofluorescence

D) radioimmunoassay

D) radioimmunoassay

Enterobacteriacae are found in the intestines of all mammals

True

False

True

Streptococus is a

A) gram positive bacillus

B) gram negative bacillus

C) gram positive cocci

D) gram negative cocci

C) gram positive cocci

Corona virus causes viral diarrhea in dogs and FIP, FCV in cats.

True

False

True

Candida is the most common fungi found on mucous membranes?

True

False

True

Mad cow disease is caused by

A) bacteria

B) fungi

C) a virus

D) prions

D) prions

This disease is endemic in the central and eastern US where about 80% of people have titers.

A) Blastomyces dermatitids

B) Cryptococcus neoformans

C) Histoplasma capsulatum

D) Sporothrix schenckii

C) Histoplasma capsulatum

Corynebacterium is an example of a pleomorphic bacteria.

True

False

True

This gram positive, acid-fast, non-motile, non-spore forming bacillus can be found in humans, cattle, birds, and swine. It has human health significance in that the human form can be transmitted via aerosolization and anyone can become infected.

A) Rhodococcus spp.

B) Streptococcus pyogenes

C) Mycobacterium tuberculosis

D) Listeria monocytogenes

C) Mycobacterium tuberculosis

Cryptococcus neoformans is a capsulated yeast and causes nasal fungal disease in the dog and cat.

True

False

True

Bacterial growth is effected by pH, temperature, oxygen levels, and moisture.

True

False

True

Bovine spongiform encephalopathy is also called

A) anthrax

B) hoof and mouth disease

C) mad cow disease

C) mad cow disease

Corynebacterium are gram positive curved rods that form palisades.

True

False

True

Mycobacterium leprae is responsible for _________________________ is carried by armadillos.

A) leprosy

B) bubonic plague

C) tuberculosis

A) leprosy

Enterotubes are used for in-house identification of _________________________.

A) fungi

B) gram positive cocci

C) viruses

D) gram negative bacillus enteric bacteria

D) gram negative bacillus enteric bacteria

In an Indirect Elisa, the well contains antigen coated to the surface and the sample contains antibodies that bind to the well.

True

False

True

Rod-shaped bacteria are called

A) bacillus

B) cocci

C) spirochete

D) palisades

A) bacillus

What enzyme is responsible for transforming hydrogen peroxide into water and oxygen?

A) indole

B) amylase

C) trypsin

D) protease

E) catalase

E) catalase

Mycology is the study of _______________.

A) viruses

B) small things

C) bacteria

D) fungi

D) fungi

Virology is the study of __________________.

A) sex drive

B) viruses

C) bacteria

D) fungi

B) viruses

Bacteria colonies that have a flat, non-raised appearance are described as

A) flat

B) down

C) curved

D) pancake

A) flat

The medium of choice in dermatophyte tubes is which of the following?

a) Mannitol salt agar

b) MacConkey agar

c) Mueller-Hinton agar

d) Sabouraud dextrose agar

d) Sabouraud dextrose agar

Which is the culture medium used for most sensitivity testing?

a) Blood agar

b) Kirby Bauer

c) Mueller-Hinton

d) EMB agar

c) Mueller-Hinton

The veterinarian would like to have a culture and sensitivity test completed on a cat with a suspected urinary tract infection. Which collection method is the best to collect samples for this test?

a) Swabbing

b) Free catch

c) Cystocentesis

d) Punch biopsy

c) Cystocentesis

In which stage is virus isolation most successful?

a) Midway through the infectious phase

b) In the initial inactive phase

c) After the animal has died

d) Early in the active infectious phase

d) Early in the active infectious phase

What is the most commonly performed type of sensitivity test in veterinary medicine?

a) Minimum inhibitory concentration

b) Direct sensitivity test

c) Indirect sensitivity test

d) Agar diffusion method

d) Agar diffusion method

Which organisms reproduce through a budding process?

a) Fungi

b) Anaerobes

c) Aerobes

d) Yeast

d) Yeast

The technician finds round purple cells arranged in clusters on a gram-stained slide. How would these cells be categorized?

a) Gram-positive rods

b) Gram-negative rods

c) Gram-negative cocci

d) Gram-positive cocci

d) Gram-positive cocci

Which is not a reliable method to diagnose a dermatophyte infection?

a) DMSO and KOH preparations

b) Dermatophyte tubes

c) DTM

d) Wood"s lamp

d) Wood"s lamp

If the organisms are non-motile on microscopic examination, which test should be performed?

a) Wet prep

b) Motility media

c) Hanging drop

d) Brownian

b) Motility media

What agent is used to determine if a gram-positive coccus or rod is catalase positive?

a) Iodine

b) Potassium hydroxide

c) Ethanol

d) Hydrogen peroxide

d) Hydrogen peroxide

If the milk-reagent mixture in the California mastitis test creates a distinct precipitate but no gel formation, how would the result be recorded?

a) Negative

b) Distinct positive

c) Weak positive

d) Trace

c) Weak positive

Blood agar would be considered which type of medium?

a) General purpose

b) Selective

c) Differential and Enriched

d) Transport

c) Differential and Enriched

What stain is useful in the evaluation of fungal organisms?

a) Crystal violet

b) Fuchsin

c) Safranin

d) Lactophenol cotton blue

d) Lactophenol cotton blue

What percentage of dermatophyte infections in cats is due to Microsporum canis?

a) 70%

b) 60%

c) 50%

d) 95%

d) 95%

An experienced technician can recognize some bacteria just by looking at the colony. What characteristic can be used to describe the texture of a colony?

a) Mucoid

b) Transparent

c) Rhizoid

d) Undulate

a) Mucoid

A positive or motile result in motility media would appear as which of the following?

a) No growth

b) Growth only along the inoculation line

c) Diffuse growth throughout the media

d) Blackening throughout the media

c) Diffuse growth throughout the media

To maximize the results, microbiology samples must be collected in which manner?

a) Aseptically

b) With a cotton swab

c) After death

d) After treatment is started

a) Aseptically

When isolating a bacterial colony, the best streaking technique would be which of the following?

a) Quadrant

b) Full coverage

c) Slant S

d) Stab

a) Quadrant

In which bacterial growth phase does spore formation usually occur?

a) Stationary

b) Initial

c) Exponential

d) Logarithmic

d) Logarithmic

What is the first step that must be done when performing a Gram stain procedure?

a) Heat fix the sample.

b) Pour crystal violet over the sample.

c) Place a drop of sterile saline on the slide.

d) Pour iodine over the sample.

c) Place a drop of sterile saline on the slide.

Growth of facultative anaerobes is described by which of the following statements?

a) Must have oxygen to grow

b) Growth is inhibited in the presence of oxygen

c) Can have limited growth in the absence of oxygen

d) Must have carbon dioxide to grow

c) Can have limited growth in the absence of oxygen

If a technician were interested in replicating a known fastidious pathogen, which type of culture medium would be used?

a) Differential

b) Selective

c) Enriched

d) General purpose

c) Enriched

Which of the following is the agar most commonly found in the dermatophyte tests in veterinary clinics?

a) MacConkey agar

b) Mueller-Hinton agar

c) Mannitol salt agar

d) Sabouraud dextrose agar

d) Sabouraud dextrose agar

Which phase of bacterial growth is a state of homeostasis?

a) Stationary

b) Initial

c) Exponential

d) Logarithmic

a) Stationary

The Gram stain reveals Gram stain variable results. Which test would be performed to confirm the type of cells present?

a) Giemsa stain

b) Ziehl-Neelsen stain

c) Acid-fast stain

d) Potassium hydroxide test

d) Potassium hydroxide test

All bacteria have a capsule.

True

False

False

Antibiotics are not effective against viruses because...

A) they are not strong enough to destroy the viral envelope

B) viruses are resistant due to their small size

C) viruses don't have the structures or metabolic processes that are targeted by antibiotics

D) viruses can form endospores and "overwinter"

C) viruses don't have the structures or metabolic processes that are targeted by antibiotics

Fungi reproduce sexually and asexually.

True

False

True

Which bacteria forms endospores, survives harsh conditions within the soil, and has been used as a terrorist weapon.

A) Bacillus anthracis

B) Corynebacterium diphtheriae

C) Mycobacterium tuberculosis

D) Campylobacter spp.

A) Bacillus anthracis

Human infections of the West Nile Virus have occured in the Dallas/Fort Worth area. The virus that causes this disease is the __________________________.

A) Hanta virus

B) Parainfluenza virus

C) Flavivirus

D) Herpes virus

C) Flavivirus

The purpose of the Gram's Iodine in the Gram Staining procedure is to:

A) Remove the Crystal Violet from the cell wall

B) Fix the Crystal Violet to the cell wall

C) Neutralize the pH of the Crystal Violet stain

D) Remove the lipids from the cell wall

B) Fix the Crystal Violet to the cell wall

This organism is a coccobacilli obligate intracellular parasite, transmitted by ticks, fleas, and mites.

A) Picorna

B) Leptospira spp.

C) Rickettsia

C) Rickettsia

Viruses are generally classified as RNA or DNA type.

True

False

True

Clostridium tetani bacteria causes

A) tetanus

B) rabies

C) bubonic plague

D) parvo

A) tetanus

Which of the following diseases is believed to be caused by prions?

A) rabies

B) equine encephalitis

C) Mad Cow Disease

C) Mad Cow Disease

Sporothrix schenckii form sub-q granulomas that eventually discharge pus and are seen in horses along the rear leg lymph channels.

True

False

True

This bacteria is a common cause of abortions, infertility, and arthralgia, in many species.

A) Escherichia coli

B) FIV

C) herpes

D) Brucella spp.

D) Brucella spp.

Papilloma virus causes

A) warts

B) acne

C) cold sores

D) mast cell tumors

A) warts

Viruses require a host cell to survive.

True

False

True

Two viral forms of kennel cough are canine adenovirus type 2 and canine parainfluenza.

True

False

True

In a Direct Elisa, the well contains antibody coated to the surface and the sample contains antigen which binds to the antibody.

True

False

True

How can you differentiate E. Coli from Klebsiella, both enteric bacteria?

A) E. coli is catalase positive and Klebsiella is not

B) Klebsiella is gram positive E. coli is not.

C) E. coli is motile and Klebsiella is not.

C) E. coli is motile and Klebsiella is not.

Old gram positive bacteria may stain red and appear as gram negative.

True

False

True

This gram negative rickettsia was first seen in working dogs in Viet Nam and is transmitted by Amblyomma americanumi, the Lone Star tick.

A) Ehrlichia canis

B) Ureaplasma

C) Pasturella

D) Campylobacter

A) Ehrlichia canis

All ________________ are obligate intracellular parasites.

A) bacteria

B) molds

C) viruses

D) fungi

C) viruses

What bacterial characteristic allows some bacteria to survive harsh environmental conditions?

A) Cell Wall

B) Endospores

C) ectoplasm

D) mitosis

B) Endospores

Identify the standard culture media used to evaluate susceptibility of microorganisms to antimicrobial agents.

A) blood agar

B) nutrient agar

C) Mueller Hinton agar

D) MacConkey's agar

C) Mueller Hinton agar

Bacteria colonies that have a "rounded hill" appearance are described as

A) flat

B) raised

C) convex

D) umbonate

C) convex

This bacteria has a grape-like odor and frequently grows in disinfectants, soaps, whirlpools and respiratory equipment.

A) Bordetella spp.

B) Pasturella spp.

C) Escherichia coli

D) Pseudomonas spp.

D) Pseudomonas spp.

Which is the medium of choice to grow gram-negative bacteria such as Enterobacteriaceae?

a) MacConkey agar

b) Thioglycolate broth

c) Simmons citrate tubes

d) Triple sugar iron agar

a) MacConkey agar

A kitten is seen for possible ringworm infection. What is the best method to obtain a sample to confirm this diagnosis?

a) Aspirate the lesions.

b) Perform a skin scraping.

c) Swab the lesions.

d) Pluck hair and skin scales from the lesion.

d) Pluck hair and skin scales from the lesion.

Which motility test requires a concave portion on the slide and is resistant to the sample drying?

a) Hanging drop

b) Wet prep

c) Motility media

d) Brownian

a) Hanging drop

The coagulase test is used to differentiate between species of which bacterium?

a) Mycobacterium

b) Staphylococcus

c) Streptococcus

d) Pseudomonas

b) Staphylococcus

A patient is suspected of having parainfluenza and it is not possible to get the sample to the lab for testing for 48 hours. What is the best option for preserving this sample?

a) Snap freeze to -70

B) Freeze to -20

c) Add 50% glycol and store at 4

d) Freeze to -270

B) Freeze to -20

In what type of sample can a colony count help with the diagnosis of infection?

a) Purulent discharge

b) Feces

c) Blood

d) Urine

d) Urine

Which of the following best describes Streptococcus pneumoniae?

a) Single coccus

b) Paired cocci

c) Chain rods

d) Paired bacillus

b) Paired cocci

Corynebacterium sp. are described as which of the following?

a) Chains

b) Palisades

c) Clusters

d) Pairs

b) Palisades

A pathogenic bacteria sample has been streaked onto an agar plate and placed in a 37 degree Celsius incubator. For routine cultures, plates should be incubated for 48 hours, with placed examined after ______________________ of incubation.

a) 8 to 10 hours

b) 18 to 24 hours

c) 14 to 16 hours

d) 48 to 72 hours

b) 18 to 24 hours

Which organisms are classified as prokaryotic cells?

a) Yeast

b) Viruses

c) Fungi

d) Bacteria

d) Bacteria

Which sensitivity test is the most precise but takes several steps and time to perform?

a) Direct sensitivity test

b) Indirect sensitivity test

c) Agar diffusion method

d) Minimum inhibitory concentration

b) Indirect sensitivity test

A microorganism on the slide appears red after staining with the Ziehl-Neelsen stain. What would be the result for this organism?

a) Acid fast

b) Non-acid fast

c) Gram negative

d) Gram positive

a) Acid fast

The technician finds rod-shaped red cells arranged in long strands on a gram-stained slide. How would these cells be categorized?

a) Gram-positive rods

b) Gram-positive cocci

c) Gram-negative rods

d) Gram-negative cocci

c) Gram-negative rods

Which staining procedure requires the sample to be in the diluted stain for 20 to 30 minutes?

a) Potassium hydroxide test

b) Giemsa stain

c) Gram stain

d) Ziehl-Neelsen stain

b) Giemsa stain

A pathogenic bacteria that can invade the internal organs of an animal has been streaked onto an agar plate. Which is the optimal temperature (C) for incubating this plate?

a) 25

b) 45

c) 37

d) 27

c) 37

Which is an example of dimorphic fungus that can grow as a yeast or a fungus depending on temperature?

a) Aspergillus

b) Microsporum

c) Candida

d) Histoplasma

d) Histoplasma

Which stage of the Gram stain procedure prevents the sample from washing off, helps to preserve the cell morphology, and kills the bacteria so they are permeable to the staining?

a) Air drying

b) Decolorizing

c) Heat fixing

d) Mordant

c) Heat fixing

What color change in DTM indicates the presence of dermatophytes?

a) Blue

b) Green

c) Teal

d) Red

d) Red

Which bacterial species are used as a positive control for the oxidase activity test?

a) Streptococcus

b) Mycobacterium

c) Staphylococcus

d) Pseudomonas

d) Pseudomonas

Which type of hemolysis creates a narrow bank of greenish discoloration around the colony when grown on a blood agar plate?

a) Delta

b) Alpha

c) Beta

d) Gamma

b) Alpha

Which of the following is the most common reason for the inability to diagnose a disease involving microorganisms?

a) Insufficient sample

b) Antibiotic therapy

c) Sampling too early

d) Contamination of the sample

d) Contamination of the sample

A patient is suspected of have a Staphylococcus aureus infection. Which agar would be used to isolate this organism?

a) Thioglycolate broth

b) MacConkey agar

c) Mannitol salt agar

d) Triple sugar iron agar

c) Mannitol salt agar

The majority of pathogenic bacteria that affect animals are classified as which of the following?

a) Mesophiles

b) Fastidious microbes

c) Thermophiles

d) Psychrophiles

a) Mesophiles

A candle jar creates which of the following environments?

a) Rich in carbon dioxide

b) Rich in oxygen

c) Lacking in oxygen

d) Rich in nitrogen

a) Rich in carbon dioxide

An organism with a spore located in the center of the cell would be which of the following?

a) Clostridium tetani

b) Bacillus anthracis

c) Streptococcus pneumoniae

d) Clostridium chauvoei

b) Bacillus anthracis

Gram negative bacteria will stain red or pink.

True

False

True

This bacteria is a respiratory pathogen of warm blooded animals.

A) Clostridium spp.

B) Rhodococcus spp.

C) Leptospira spp.

D) Bordetella spp.

D) Bordetella spp.

This organism is a coccobacilli obligate intracellular parasite, transmitted by ticks, fleas, and mites.

A) Picorna

B) Leptospira spp.

C) Rickettsia

D) Microsporum canis

C) Rickettsia

What bacteria structure prevents the cell from rupturing due to osmosis?

A) cell wall

B) cell membrane

C) lipids

D) nuclear membrane

A) cell wall