genetics lab study guide 😭

Which of the following are steps NOT involved in DNA purification from a tissue sample?

a. lysing cells using detergents
b. adding a chelating agent, such as EDTA, to protect DNA by sequestering Mg2+ ions
c. precipitating DNA by mixing the solution with ethanol
d. using a cation to stabilize the positively charged DNA molecules

d. using a cation to stabilize the positively charged DNA molecules

What do detergents dissolve when purifying DNA?

a. proteins
b. DNA
c. lipids
d. RNA

a. proteins
c. lipids

Why is the DNA mixture heated to 72° during the extension step of PC?

a. DNA Polymerase is more active at higher temperatures
b. unnecessary proteins would get denatured at this temperature
c. so hydrogen bonds stay broken during extension
d. the new DNA strand would be synthesized fast

a. DNA Polymerase is more active at higher temperatures
d. the new DNA strand would be synthesized fast

What factors are necessary for successful DNA ligation? Select all that apply.

a. DNA ligase to join DNA strands.
b. blunt-ended sequences
c. sticky ends with complementary overhangs
d. non-complementary overhang

a. DNA ligase to join DNA strands.
c. sticky ends with complementary overhangs

Which of the following is true about Northern Blots?

a. used to separate RNA molecules by size
b. require restriction enzymes
c. the resulting bands are always sharp.
d. intermolecular base pairing within RNA makes electrophoresis separation less distinct

a. used to separate RNA molecules by size
d. intermolecular base pairing within RNA makes electrophoresis separation less distinct

In what order do the following steps occur in DNA purification?
I. *Protein Removal*: Separate proteins and other cell debris from the DNA by adjusting the salt concentration, causing proteins to precipitate.
II.*DNA Precipitation*: Add ethanol to the solution to precipitate the DNA, which can then becollected as a pellet through centrifugation.
III.*DNA Dissolution*: Dissolve the purified DNA pellet in water or buffer for further use.
IV. *Cell Lysis*: Break open the cells to release their contents using a solution with chemicals that disrupt the cell membranes and proteins.

a. II, IV, I, III
b. III, I, IV, II
c. IV, I, I, II
d. I, III, II, IV

c. IV, I, I, II

In what order does thermal cycling occur? What happens in them?

a. denature (increase temperature), anneal (decrease temperature), extension (increase temperature)
b. anneal (decrease temperature), denature (increase temperature), extension(increase temperature)
c. extension (increase temperature), denature (increase temperature), anneal (decrease temperature)
d. denature (increase temperature), extension (increase temperature), anneal (decrease temperature)

a. denature (increase temperature), anneal (decrease temperature), extension (increase temperature)

Which of the following best describes the difference between sticky ends and blunt ends created by restriction enzymes?

a. sticky ends have overhanging single-stranded sequences, while blunt ends are cut straight across with no overhangs.
b. blunt ends have overhanging sequences, while sticky ends do not.
c. sticky ends are more likely to be generated by blunt-cutting restriction enzymes, while blunt ends are produced by staggered-cutting restriction enzymes.
d. blunt ends can only ligate with compatible sticky ends, while sticky ends can ligate with any DNA end

a. sticky ends have overhanging single-stranded sequences, while blunt ends are cut straight across with no overhangs.

Which of the following is NOT true about plasmids?

a. plasmids are extrachromosomal DNA elements
b. plasmids are usually circular
c. plasmids are usually linear
d. plasmids are usually double stranded

c. plasmids are usually linear

Which of the following is NOT true about the movement of DNA during electrophoresis?

a. the DNA is pulled towards the negatively charged electrode.
b. smaller DNA fragments move faster through the gel than larger fragments
c. the solution of DNA is deposited at one end of the gel
d. the movement of DNA is based on its size and charge

a. the DNA is pulled towards the negatively charged electrode.

What technique would be used to separate a specific DNA fragment?

a. PCR
b. capillary electrophoresis
c. gel electrophoresis
d. Sanger sequencing

a. PCR

What is one difference between the EcoRI and EcoRV enzymes?

a. the ends of a molecule cut by EcoRI lack an overhanging region of single-stranded DNA.
b. the ends of a molecule cut by EcoRV lack an overhanging region of single-stranded DNA.
c. EcoRI is not a restriction enzyme, while EcoRV is.
d. EcoRV produces what is known as "sticky-ends

b. the ends of a molecule cut by EcoRV lack an overhanging region of single-stranded DNA.

Which results would display a successful PCR amplification through gel electrophoresis?

a. no band of both the original DNA and the amplified PCR product
b. a faint band of the amplified PCR product
c. a sharp band of the expected length of the original DNA
d. a sharp band of the expected length of the amplified PCR product

d. a sharp band of the expected length of the amplified PCR product

Which technique utilized RNA's flexibility in regard to base pairing, and separates it by size?

a. western blotting
b. northern blotting
c. southern blotting
d. gel electrophoresis

b. northern blotting

What is the function of T-DNA in the production of a transgenic plant?

a. the T-DNA forms a gall formation on the plant, making it easier for a pathogen to proliferate
b. the T-DNA provides antibiotic/herbicide resistance
c. the T-DNA goes into the nucleus and combines with the host's original genome, introducing new genes to the plant
d. the T-DNA allows for regeneration of the transgenic plant because of acceleration of compressed air into callus tissue

c. the T-DNA goes into the nucleus and combines with the host's original genome, introducing new genes to the plant

EcoRV is one of the two restriction enzymes used on E. coli. EcoRV cuts both strands of the DNA strand. Which of the following are produced after the use of theEcoRV restriction enzyme

a. sticky-ends
b. no overhanging region of single stranded DNA (ssDNA)
c. overhanging region of DNA
d. blunt ends

b. no overhanging region of single stranded DNA (ssDNA)
d. blunt ends

what is the first step in completing a "southern blot"?

a. DNA is denatured with heat
b. DNA is digested with restriction enzymes and separated through gel electrophoresis
c. a DNA sample is placed onto an agarose plate
d. the original DNA sample is duplicated using a PCR

b. DNA is digested with restriction enzymes and separated through gel electrophoresis

The difference between the Western blot and the Northern blot is that:

a. western blot studies DNA sequences; northern blot studies RNA
b. western blot studies DNA sequences; northern blot studies protein
c. western blot studies protein sequences; northern blot studies DNA
d. western blot studies protein sequences; northern blot studies RNA

d. western blot studies protein sequences; northern blot studies RNA

How is the expression of a transgene measured?

a. western blot
b. RT-PCR
c. northern blot
d. PCR

a. western blot
b. RT-PCR

What is the result of incorporating a chelating agent into a sample of DNA?

a. the DNA is multiplied
b. the DNA is enlarged and easy to visualize
c. the DNA is released into the extraction buffer
d. the DNA is denatured

c. the DNA is released into the extraction buffer

What processes are involved in purifying DNA from a tissue sample?

a. grinding DNA
b. cell culture
c. usage of detergents
d. usage of histones

c. usage of detergents

What occurs in the annealing phase of thermal cooling?

a. denaturing of the polymerase
b. formation of double stranded helices
c. melting of the hydrogen bonds
d. mixture is cooled

b. formation of double stranded helices

What's the purpose of a PCR?

a. synthesize a DNA molecule
b. denature a short strand of DNA
c. make large amount of DNA
d. aid in diagnosing genetic diseases

c. make large amount of DNA
d. aid in diagnosing genetic diseases

Why is E. Coli no longer used as a polymerase in PCR?

a. Coli causes mutations
b. Coli denatured during each cycle
c. Coli is heat sensitive
d. Coli can harm DNA

b. Coli denatured during each cycle
c. Coli is heat sensitive

Which of the following is true about Plasmids?

a. bacteria absorbs plasmids to replicate
b. plasmids can contain genes for antibiotics
c. circular double-stranded molecules
d. circular single-stranded molecules

b. plasmids can contain genes for antibiotics
c. circular double-stranded molecules

What is the primary function of restriction enzymes in molecular biology?

a. to amplify specific DNA sequences
b. to cut DNA at specific sequences
c. to introduce mutations into DNA
d. to ligate DNA fragments together

b. to cut DNA at specific sequences

What is the primary purpose of using primers in a PCR (Polymerase ChainReaction) process?

a. to amplify the entire genomic DNA
b. to provide a starting point for DNA synthesis
c. to denature the DNA template
d. to label the DNA for detection

b. to provide a starting point for DNA synthesis

Which of the following statements about gel electrophoresis are true?

a. gel electrophoresis separates DNA fragments based on their size.
b. only DNA fragments of equal size can be separated using this technique.
c. the process involves the movement of DNA through an agarose.
d. gel electrophoresis can also be used to separate RNA and protein

a. gel electrophoresis separates DNA fragments based on their size.
c. the process involves the movement of DNA through an agarose.

Which of the following are key steps involved in the Southern blotting process?

a. electrophoresis of DNA fragments through a gel
b. transfer of DNA using reverse transcriptase
c. amplification of DNA using reverse transcriptase
d. hybridization with a labeled probe to detect specific sequences

a. electrophoresis of DNA fragments through a gel
b. transfer of DNA using reverse transcriptase
d. hybridization with a labeled probe to detect specific sequences

Which of the following steps are commonly involved in the process of isolating genomic DNA?

a. lysis of cells to release DNA into solution
b. amplification of DNA using PCR
c. removal of proteins and other contaminants from the DNA
d. sequencing of the isolated DNA fragments

a. lysis of cells to release DNA into solution
c. removal of proteins and other contaminants from the DNA

Which of the following are major uses of PCR?

a. detecting specific DNA sequences
b. identifying individual macromolecules out of a given DNA sequence
c. isolating parts of a given DNA sequence
d. amplifying a given DNA sequence
e. switching given segments of a given DNA sequence

a. detecting specific DNA sequences
c. isolating parts of a given DNA sequence
d. amplifying a given DNA sequence

Which of the following would not be a name for a restriction enzyme isolated from E. Coli?

a. EcoRI
b. EcoRII
c. EcoRIII
d. EcoRV
e. EcoRVI

e. EcoRVI

Which of the following accurately describe the function of plasmids in regard to cloningDNA?

a. plasmids provide bacteria with structural stability
b. plasmids can carry and transfer genes of interest
c. plasmids can express signals used to initiate replication
d. plasmids can isolate genes of interest
e. plasmids can amplify genes of interest

b. plasmids can carry and transfer genes of interest
e. plasmids can amplify genes of interest

What is the difference between Northern, Southern, and Western blotting?

a. northern blot detects DNA, southern blot detects RNA, western blot detects proteins
b. northern blot detects proteins, southern blot detects DNA, western blot detects RNA
c. northern blot detects proteins, southern blot detects RNA, western blot detects DNA
d. northern blot detects RNA, southern blot detects proteins, western blot detects DNA
e. northern blot detects RNA, southern blot detects DNA, western blot detects proteins

e. northern blot detects RNA, southern blot detects DNA, western blot detects proteins

What is transformation?

a. the process of creating new organisms out of individuals with foreign DNA into new organisms with a permanent change to their germ-line
b. the process of mutating existing organisms through generations of selective breeding
c. the process of creating new organisms containing genetically-engineered traits
d. the process of DNA recombination within transgenic organisms
e. the process of mammalian cells becoming cancerous

a. the process of creating new organisms out of individuals with foreign DNA into new organisms with a permanent change to their germ-line
e. the process of mammalian cells becoming cancerous

Which of the following statements about the PCR process is not true?

a. PCR needs primers that are 20 nucleotides long to initiate DNA synthesis
b. regardless of the primer sequence, the annealing temperature is fixed to ensure optimal binding
c. Taq polymerase can withstand high temperatures used in denaturation
d. each cycle of PCR typically involves denaturation, annealing, and extension

b. regardless of the primer sequence, the annealing temperature is fixed to ensure optimal binding

Which of the following statements is true about creating transgenic mice?

a. all cells in the resulting mice are guaranteed to express the transgene
b. transgenic mice can only be created using viral vectors
c. chimeras can produce both transgenic and non-transgenic offspring
d. transgenic DNA must be delivered with microinjection directly into the embryo

c. chimeras can produce both transgenic and non-transgenic offspring

What is the difference between EcoRV and EcoRI in its cutting mechanism?

a. EcoRV cuts only double-stranded DNA, producing blunt ends with overhang
b. EcoRI cuts at a specific sequence, producing sticky ends with no overhang
c. EcoRV cuts both strands in the middle of its recognition sequence, producing blunt ends with no overhang
d. EcoRV does not cut DNA but EcoRI doe

c. EcoRV cuts both strands in the middle of its recognition sequence, producing blunt ends with no overhang

What is the main reason for doing multiple cycles of thermal cycling in PCR?

a. to ensure the primer sequences are amplified
b. to exponentially increase the amount of target DNA
c. to denature any remaining double-stranded DNA
d. to allow the DNA polymerase to function at lower temperatures

b. to exponentially increase the amount of target DNA

Which step in the Southern blotting process is crucial for ensuring that the DNA fragments remain in place on the nylon membrane after transfer from the gel?

a. digestion of DNA with restriction enzymes
b. covalent attachment of DNA to the membrane through UV exposure
c. hybridization with a complementary probe
d. washing off unhybridized probes

b. covalent attachment of DNA to the membrane through UV exposure

What are important steps in isolating genomic DNA?

a. cells are usually broken up by grinding or lysing
b. use of chemicals that contain detergents
c. DNA sequencing
d. DNA precipitates when mixed with ethanol

a. cells are usually broken up by grinding or lysing
b. use of chemicals that contain detergents
d. DNA precipitates when mixed with ethanol

What are key components for a successful PCR reaction?

a. primers
b. RNA polymerase
c. DNA template
d. DNA ligase

a. primers
c. DNA template

What are common uses of restriction enzymes?

a. cut DNA at known locations
b. join DNA fragments
c. create sticky or blunt ends
d. amplify DNA sequences

a. cut DNA at known locations
c. create sticky or blunt ends

Which techniques are involved in DNA analysis using gel electrophoresis?

a. separating DNA by known size
b. using an electrical current
c. breaking random sequences
d. sequencing RNA

a. separating DNA by known size
b. using an electrical current

Which of the following are methods of DNA analysis involving blotting and hybridization?

a. southern blotting
b. northern blotting
c. western blotting
d. PCR amplification

a. southern blotting
b. northern blotting
c. western blotting

What properties separate molecules in gel electrophoresis?

a. shape
b. size
c. base pairs
d. charge

b. size

What enzymes are used in DNA ligation?

a. helicase
b. DNA ligase
c. DNA polymerase
d. RNA polymerase

b. DNA ligase
c. DNA polymerase

What is the function of the hybridization solution in blotting?

a. they show the molecular orbital of the solution
b. they create mutations
c. they bind the complementary DNA sequences
d. they isolate the DNA

c. they bind the complementary DNA sequences

How is the expression of transgene measured?

a. reverse-transcription PCR
b. gel electrophoresis
c. western blotting
d. RNA blotting

a. reverse-transcription PCR
c. western blotting
d. RNA blotting

Why is Taq polymerase used in PCR?

a. they can withstand the amplification cycles
b. they can withstand cold temperatures
c. they are super cheap
d. they can withstand hot temperatures

a. they can withstand the amplification cycles
d. they can withstand hot temperatures

What happens in the first step in PCR?

a. annealing: the mixture is cooled to make double stranded helices between complementary DNA molecules
b. extension: the mixture is heated to synthesize the new DNA strand along the template strand
c. denaturing: The reaction mixture is cooled to freeze the hydrogen bonds between strands of the template DNA
d. denaturing: The reaction mixture is heated to melt the hydrogen bonds between strands of the template DNA

d. denaturing: The reaction mixture is heated to melt the hydrogen bonds between strands of the template DNA

What is a sticky end?

a. pairs of bases bonded together by hydrogen bonds
b. DNA strands that run in opposite directions
c. an overhanging region of single stranded DNA from a molecule that was cut by restriction enzymes
d. circular DNA that is found in eukaryotic cells

c. an overhanging region of single stranded DNA from a molecule that was cut by restriction enzymes

What is an example of a selectable marker?

a. a plasmid, with a gene for antibiotic resistance, is put on an agar plate with an antibiotic so that only cells that incorporate the plasmid grow
b. proteins were labeled with radioactive sulfur to prove that proteins made up our genetic material
c. DNA was labeled with radioactive phosphorus to prove that DNA made up our genetic material
d. a marker was used for genetic mapping to find the location of genes on a chromosome

a. a plasmid, with a gene for antibiotic resistance, is put on an agar plate with an antibiotic so that only cells that incorporate the plasmid grow

When DNA goes through gel via an electrical current, what do they move towards?

a. the DNA molecules move towards the negative electrode
b. the DNA molecules move towards the positive electrode
c. the DNA molecules move towards the neutral electrode
d. the DNA molecules move towards no electrode

b. the DNA molecules move towards the positive electrode

What is the difference between Southern and Northern blots?

a. southern blots are used to detect specific DNA sequences. northern blots are used to detect specific RNA sequences.
b. southern blots are used to detect specific RNA sequences. northern blots are used to detect specific DNA sequences.
c. southern blots are used to detect specific DNA sequences. northern blots are used to detect specific proteins.
d. southern blots are used to detect specific proteins. northern blots are used to detect specific RNA sequences.

a. southern blots are used to detect specific DNA sequences. northern blots are used to detect specific RNA sequences.

Which technique is used to amplify DNA sequences?

a. gel electrophoresis
b. polymerase chain reaction (PCR)
c. DNA sequencing
d. northern blotting

b. polymerase chain reaction (PCR)

What type of molecule does Northern blotting detect?

a. DNA
b. RNA
c. proteins
d. lipids

b. RNA

What is the primary function of DNA sequencing?

a. amplify DNA
b. separate DNA
c. analyze protein structures
d. determine the nucleotide order in DNA

d. determine the nucleotide order in DNA

Which of the following is not a component required for PCR?

a. primers
b. DNA template
c. restriction enzymes
d. nucleotides

c. restriction enzymes

Which method allows visualization of specific proteins within a tissue?

a. western blot
b. immunohisochemistry
c. PCR
d. northern blot

b. immunohisochemistry

Why was Taq polymerase developed for PCR?

a. it makes more bases
b. it is more thermostable and can withstand high temperatures
c. it makes DNA fragments longer
d. it does not require promoters

b. it is more thermostable and can withstand high temperatures
d. it does not require promoters

What role does DNA ligase play in recombinant DNA technology?

a. it cuts DNA at specific sequences
b. it joins DNA strands covalently
c. it unwinds double-stranded RNA
d. it synthesizes DNA

b. it joins DNA strands covalently

Which of the following statements is true about EcoRI?

a. it cuts DNA at the sequence GAATTC
b. it is bacteria
c. it generates sticky ends due to its cutting pattern
d. it is derived from E. coli

a. it cuts DNA at the sequence GAATTC
c. it generates sticky ends due to its cutting pattern
d. it is derived from E. coli

What is an advantage of PCR over Southern blotting?

a. it is more complex
b. it is faster and more convenient
c. it can analyze larger fragments of DNA
d. it detects proteins rather than nucleic acids

b. it is faster and more convenient

Which of the following statements are true based on the process of Agrobacterium-mediated transformation?

a. agrobacterium tumefaciens naturally injects its Ti plasmid into host plant cells.
b. the Ti plasmid must remain whole to show successful transformation.
c. molecular biologists can engineer the Ti plasmid to place DNA of interest.
d. the transformed T-DNA is put into the host cell nucleus

a. agrobacterium tumefaciens naturally injects its Ti plasmid into host plant cells.
c. molecular biologists can engineer the Ti plasmid to place DNA of interest.
d. the transformed T-DNA is put into the host cell nucleus

Which of the following statements about DNA ligation is TRUE?

a. DNA ligase can only join two fragments with opposite sticky-ends of a DNA strand
b. DNA ligase cannot join blunt-ended fragments
c. DNA ligase is able to join two blunt-ended fragments
d. DNA ligase is not needed for ligation of complementary sticky-ended molecules

c. DNA ligase is able to join two blunt-ended fragments

What is the main mechanism in which agarose gel electrophoresis separates DNA molecules?

a. shape
b. charge
c. weight
d. length/size

d. length/size

What is the primary function of a chelating agent in DNA purification?

a. to denature proteins and to remove lipid membranes
b. to deprotonate negatively charged DNA with cations
c. sequester Mg2+ ions to prevent DNA degradation by nucleases
d. to precipitate DNA strands from the extraction buffer

c. sequester Mg2+ ions to prevent DNA degradation by nucleases

What is the primary purpose of a selectable marker gene in a plasmid vector?

a. to allow transformed bacteria to grow and form colonies
b. to decrease the copy number of the plasmid
c. to facilitate the purification of the plasmid DNA
d. the increase the level of expression of inserted DNA fragment

a. to allow transformed bacteria to grow and form colonies

In our experiment, we will be separating RNA molecules based on size using gel electrophoresis, and then transfer them to a membrane for detection. This is an example of what?

a. western blotting
b. northern blotting
c. DNA microarray
d. RT-PCR

b. northern blotting

Which term also refers to "transgenic organism"?

a. mutant organism
b. cloned organism
c. genetically modified organism (GMO)
d. hybrid organism

c. genetically modified organism (GMO)

What is the purpose of using electrophoresis?

a. to clone DNA
b. to separate DNA fragments by size
c. to synthesize proteins
d. to modify genes

b. to separate DNA fragments by size

Define plasmids:

a. large linear DNA molecules
b. extra-chromosomal, circular DNA elements
c. only found in plants
d. a type of RNA

b. extra-chromosomal, circular DNA elements

What can plasmids carry genes for?

a. photosynthesis
b. pathogenicity
c. drug resistance
d. b and c

d. b and c

What does molecular genetics primarily study?

a. protein structure
b. DNA and macromolecules
c. cellular division
d. organism behavior

b. DNA and macromolecules

How are proteins removed from the cell so that DNA molecules are isolated?

a. by adjusting the salt concentration, allowing proteins to to precipitate out.
b. by being mixed with ethanol, allowing proteins to denature
c. by being centrifuged, allowing proteins to separate
d. by dissolving the protein in a solvent, allowing proteins to denature

a. by adjusting the salt concentration, allowing proteins to to precipitate out.

Why is PCR more useful to scientists than DNA polymerases?

a. PCR can only add nucleotides to the end of an existing strand of DNA
b. PCR detects proteins within a cell
c. PCR uses chemically synthesized primers instead of primers on existing DNA strands
d. PCR replicates entire genomes

c. PCR uses chemically synthesized primers instead of primers on existing DNA strands

What does the process of DNA ligation consist of?

a. DNA strands are joined together through ionic bonds
b. DNA strands are covalently joined through the use of DNA ligase
c. the insertion of a single strand DNA fragment
d. the joining together of RNA strands

b. DNA strands are covalently joined through the use of DNA ligase

Why do molecular biologists use plasmids as vectors?

a. plasmids have multiple copies of genes, causing overexpression
b. the original plasmids can be easily transformed into bacteria
c. the plasmids cannot be cloned into a gene
d. to contain, amplify, transfer, and express genes of interest that are present in cloned DNA

d. to contain, amplify, transfer, and express genes of interest that are present in cloned DNA

What is foreign DNA defined as?

a. recombinant DNA from different species that has been manipulated and reintroduced
b. recombinant DNA from the same species that has been manipulated and reintroduced
c. original DNA strands coming from a different species
d. original DNA strands coming from the same species

b. recombinant DNA from the same species that has been manipulated and reintroduced

What is the primary purpose of adding ethanol to the supernatant containing DNA and other small metabolites?

a. to precipitate proteins
b. to precipitate DNA
c. to remove salts
d. to adjust the pH

b. to precipitate DNA

What is the primary purpose of running a PCR product on an electrophoretic gel?

a. to determine the sequence of the amplified DNA
b. to isolate the DNA fragment from the reaction mixture
c. to verify the successful amplification of the target DNA
d. to clone the amplified DNA into a host organism

c. to verify the successful amplification of the target DNA

What type of DNA ends are more efficiently joined together by DNA ligase?

a. blunt ends
b. sticky ends with complementary sequences
c. sticky ends with non-complementary sequences
d. none of the above

b. sticky ends with complementary sequences

What are plasmids?

a. extrachromosomal DNA elements found in bacteria
b. circular DNA molecules that replicate independently of the chromosome
c. small DNA molecules that can be transferred between bacteria
d. all of the above

d. all of the above

What is the primary purpose of creating transgenic organisms?

a. to study the function of genes
b. to treat diseases
c. to increase crop yields
d. all of the above

d. all of the above

What is the main function of Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR) in molecular genetics?

a. replicate entire genomes
b. amplify a specific DNA sequence
c. detect proteins within a cell
d. analyze RNA transcripts

b. amplify a specific DNA sequence

Which of the following enzymes is responsible for cutting DNA at precise locations?

a. ligase
b. polymerases
c. restriction enzyme
d. helicase

c. restriction enzyme

When purifying DNA, why are detergents added during the process?

a. to dissolve proteins and break down cell membranes
b. to increase DNA yield
c. to amplify the DNA fragments
d. to digest unwanted RNA

a. to dissolve proteins and break down cell membranes

Why are plasmids useful in DNA cloning experiments?

a. they are circular DNA molecules that can replicate individually within a cell
b. they contain only essential genes for bacterial survival
c. they are linear and integrate into the host genome
d. they prevent bacterial growth in the presence of antibiotics

a. they are circular DNA molecules that can replicate individually within a cell

What is the primary purpose of gel electrophoresis in molecular biology experiments?

a. to amplify DNA
b. to separate DNA fragments by size
c. to introduce foreign DNA into cells
d. to detect protein activity

b. to separate DNA fragments by size

What is the main function of primers in PCR?

a. to amplify the DNA
b. to bind to specific DNA sequences
c. to denature the DNA
d. to visualize the DNA

b. to bind to specific DNA sequences

(why do they need to bind to specific DNA?)

In gel electrophoresis, DNA fragments move forward toward which electrode?

a. positive electrode
b. negative electrode
c. both electrodes
d. neither electrodes

a. positive electrode

Which enzyme is used to cut DNA at specific sequences in recombinant DNA technology?

a. DNA polymerase
b. ligase
c. restriction enzyme
d. reverse transcriptase

c. restriction enzyme

Which enzyme is used to join a DNA fragment into a plasmid during molecular cloning?

a. DNA polymerase
b. ligase
c. helicase
d. restriction enzyme

b. ligase

What is the purpose of using a selectable marker gene in a plasmid?

a. to enhance the replication of the plasmid
b. to identify bacterial cells that have taken up the plasmid
c. to make the DNA fragment larger
d. to cut the DNA at specific sequences

b. to identify bacterial cells that have taken up the plasmid

Anneal

to stick together

Annotation

identifying suspected genes and other DNA sequences of interest

Autoradiography/Autoradiogram

using radioactively labeled antibodies and X--ray film to detect clones of interest

BAC

bacterial artificial chromosome

cDNA (copy DNA/complementary DNA)

a DNA copy from mRNA produced by reverse transcriptase