Bio 183 Exam Questions

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Last updated 1:08 AM on 5/5/26
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118 Terms

1
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Prophase 1

phase in meiosis where crossing over occurs

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T.H. Morgan

scientist(s) that studied X-linked traits in Drosophila mutants

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Chromatids

replicated forms of chromosomes joined together by centromere

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histone

protein that has DNA wrapped around it like a spool to allow fro DNA “packing”

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metaphase II

phase in meiosis where chromosomes align along the midplate

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mitosis

cell process for producing identical cells

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G1 phase

cell cycle time for cell growth before “deciding to divide”

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meoisis

cell process for producing gametes

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telophase

phase of mitosis where chromatin become less coiled and nuclear envelope reappears

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homologues

chromosomes that have the same genes (although not always the same alleles)

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G2 phase

cell cycle time where chromosomes condense before mitosis

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anaphase

phase of mitosis where sister chromatids separate and kinetochore microtubules contract

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diploid cells

in most animals, much of the life cycle is spent with cells in this state

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allele

an alternate form of a gene

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polygenic inheritance

multiple genes affecting one trait

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dihybrid cross

a process for determining the frequency of two traits in a generation

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which environmental factor can influence gene expression

temperature, diet, stress, illness

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binary fission is most similar to which process in eukaryotic cells

mitosis

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what is the primary role of the mitotic spindle fibers

align chromosomes and separate sister chromatids

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which phase of meiosis is being described by the following sentence? duplicated homologous chromosomes are pulled to opposite sides of the cell by contracting microtubules

anaphase I

21
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genes are located on the same chromosome are called

linked genes

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the chromosomal theory states that genes are located on

chromosomes

23
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what organisms primarily reproduce by binary fission

bacteria

24
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which process contributes to genetic variation

meiosis

25
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how does mitosis differ meiosis I

mitosis results in genetically identical daughter cells

26
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color blindness is an X-linked trait. if an XX parent has normal vision and is not a carrier and an XY parent who is color blind have offspring, what percentage of those offspring would be expected to be color blind

0%

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given the parents aabb and AaBb, what proportion of the progeny will be expected to phenotypically resemble the first parent

1/4

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which of the following does contain genes

chloroplast nucleus nucleoid region and mitochondria all contain genes

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in guinea pigs, pink eyes are dominant to white eyes and pink noses are dominant to brown noses. the genes for thes two traits are linked on the same chromosomes. a guinea pig with pink eyes and pink nose is crossed with a guinea pig with white eyes and brown nose. their offspring were 44 pink/pink, 7 pink/brown, 16 white/pink, and 33 white/brown. what is the recombination frequency?

23%

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in certain plants, tall is dominant to short. if a heterozygous plant is crossed with a homozygous short plant, what is the probability the offspring will be short

1/2

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what can not account for genetic variation

mitosis

32
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in algae and fungi organisms spend so much of their life cycle as _____ organisms and have to undergo _____ to produce gametes

haploid, meiosis

33
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a researcher observes cells where homologous chromosomes separate but sister chromatids remain attached. which stage/process is this

meiosis I anaphase

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in radishes, red and white are pure-breeding colors, while heterozygous radishes are purple. if two purple radishes are crosses, what fraction of the F1 generation will be red

25%

35
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when doing a test cross you will need to use an individual that is

homozygous recessive for a particular trait

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if you did a dihybrid cross and found that a very high percentage of F1 offspring looked like one or the other parent, what conclusion might you come to about these two traits

the genes are linked on the same chromosome

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if gene A and gene B have a recombination frequency of 5% and gene B and gene C have 5%, what is the most likely relationship between these three genes

A and C are 10 map units apart

38
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checkpoints during the cell cycle are important because they

  • allow the organelle activity to catch up to cellular demands

  • ensure the integrity of the cell’s DNA

  • allow the cell to generate sufficient ATP for cellular division

  • allow the spindle fibers to attach to the chromosomes

39
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what are examples of an enviromental factor affecting a phenotypic expression in a population

  • the amount of rain affects the yield of an orange crop

  • the availability of nutrients affects the weight of a mammalian species

  • the amount of time spent in the sunlight affects the skin color of a population

40
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if i toss a coin 3 times, what is the probability, in fractions that i will get 1 head and 2 tails

3/8

41
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cyclins

are proteins that are produced to regulate the passage of the cell through cell cycle checkpoints they bind to Cdks when activated

42
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cohesion proteins

are degraded by enzymes during anaphase so that each sister chromatid can pulled to the opposite side of the cell

43
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what is the fraction of offspring that will be heterozygous for a particular trait if both parents are heterozygous

1/2

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mendel’s law of independent assortment

states that in a dihybrid cross, the alleles of each gene assorts independently

45
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true or false: if the recombination frequency of two genes is 19% the genes are likely linked on the same chromosome

true

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a polar microtubule

does not bind to the chromosomes but helps push the cell membrane and cytoplasm to accommodate the splitting into 2 cells during cytokinesis

47
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during cytokinesis in an animal cell, constriction of actin filaments produces a

cleavage furrow

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what is the probability that two heterozygous parents for a recessive disorder will have 2 healthy offspring

9/16

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which cell cycle checkpoints is in charge of determining if the DNA replicated accurately and there are enough organelles

G2

50
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central vacuole function

sequesters water and waste products

51
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mitochondria function

ATP synthesis

52
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ribosomes function

enables protein synthesis

53
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golgi appartus function

sorts and distributes proteins

54
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lysosomes function

site for macromolecule degradation

55
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mitochondria found in

eukaryotes only

56
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ribosomes found in

prokaryotes and eukaryotes

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nucliod region

prokaryotes only

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chloroplast found in

plant cells only

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cell walls found in

plant cells only

60
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what isn’t a function of lipids

component of enzymes

61
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what is a function of lipids

  • component of plasma membrane

  • energy storage

  • insulation for internal organs

62
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what lowers the activation energy necessary to start a rection

  • introducing an enzyme specific to that reaction

  • indroducing an enzyme and a competitor substrate

  • increasing heat until proteins are denatured

63
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the actual sequnce of amino acids is referring to as its

primary structure

64
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what is part of cell theory

  • all organisms are composed of one or more cells

  • cells come from other cell division

  • cells are the smallest living thing

65
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what is not apart of cell theory

eukaryotic cells have evolved from prokaryotic cells

66
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the outside of the cell has 30.0mM of KCl while the inside has 3mM KCl. if the membrane is impermeable to KCl which direction will water move and by what

out of teh cell by osmosis

67
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referring to the question above, what can you say about the composition of the environments inside and outside the cell

the inside is hypertonic to the outside

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phospholipids

  • have a phosphate region that is non-polar

  • have fatty acid chains that are polar

  • are majority component of plasma membrane

  • have a steroid ring

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what may affect enzyme activity

temperature, pH, inhibitors,

70
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during a redox reaction, the molecule that loses an electron has been

oxidized and now has a lower energy level

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72
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put the following steps in order if activation

  1. water is added to catalyze hydrolysis

  2. new products released from enzyme

  3. substrate binds specifically to enzyme

  4. substrate undergoes chemical change

  1. substrate binds specifically to enzyme

  1. water is added to catalyze hydrolysis

  1. substrate undergoes chemical change

  1. new products released from enzyme

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what is the likely function of intergral protein that passes through the membrane multiple times

channel

74
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put the following sequence of events in order

  1. conformation exposes K+ binding sites and allows K+ to bind to the carrier

  2. ATP phosphorylates carrier bound to Na+

  3. K+ binding triggers dephosphorylation of carrier

  4. carrier changes conformation and releases K+ into the cell

  5. conformational change in carrier reduces affinity for Na+

  1. ATP phosphorylates carrier bound to Na+

  1. conformational change in carrier reduces affinity for Na+

  1. conformation exposes K+ binding sites and allows K+ to bind to the carrier

  1. K+ binding triggers dephosphorylation of carrier

  2. carrier chnages conformation and releases K+ into the cell

75
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functions of the cytoskeleton

  • helps maintain cell shape

  • allows structures to move throughout the cell on the scaffolding of the cytoskeleton

  • allows cellular structures to be anchored within the cytoplasm

  • provides cell membrane strength

76
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what is not a function of the cytoskeleton

produces ATP for cell motility

77
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how is facilitated diffusion different from simple diffusion

facilitated diffusion requires a transport protein

78
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components of a nucleic acid

hydrogen, oxygen, carbon, nitrogen

79
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which of the four macromolecules is being described? this molecule consists of sugars phosphate groups, and ring structures composed of C, H, O, and N

nucleic acid

80
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the DNA in a prokaryote

circular

81
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a non competitive inhibitor binds to the ____ site on an enzyme

allosteric

82
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what type of fatty acid chain would be more fluid

unsaturated

83
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exocytosis

a type of bulk transport that allows molecules to leave the cell

84
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how does cyclic photophosophorylation differ from non-cyclic photophosphorylation

  • doesnt use photosystem II

  • it doesnt produce NADPH

85
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what are the end of the calvin cycle

sugar only

86
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put the follwoing events in the correct order

  1. cellular protein is phosphorylated

  2. G protein is activated

  3. cAMP is produced

  4. signal molecule binds to ,membrane receptor

  5. GPCR is activated

  1. cAMP is produced

  2. GPCR is activated

  1. G protein is activated

  2. cAMP is produced

  1. cellular protein is phosphorylated

87
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sodium channels are open and potassium channels are closed during

depolarization

88
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during repolarization, the membrane potential is

becoming more negative

89
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the water necessary for photosynthesis

provides the electrons to replace lost electrons in photosystem II

90
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if the thylakoid membrane became leaky to ions, what would you predict to be the result on the light reactions

it would stop ATP production

91
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photorespiration

is an inefficient way plants can produce organic molecules and in the process use oxygen and release carbon dioxide

92
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what is not a product of glysolysis

FADH2 and CO2

93
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what are products of glycolysis

ATP and NADH

94
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the purpose of the fermentation process is the

regeneration of NAD+

95
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the non-light requiring reactions of photosynthesis occur in the

stroma

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if glucose isnt available what other molecules can drive oxidative phosphorylation

amino acids, fatty acids, nucleotides

97
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the final electron acceptor in the mitochondrial electron transport chain is

oxygen

98
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in the TedTalk video, quorum sensing is used by bacteria to

  • communicate with bacteria of the same species using specific molecules

  • communicate with bacteria of different species using specific molecules

  • allow bacteria to produce a coordinated response to the environment (“glow”)

  • launch an attack on host organism

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a protein kinse is

an enzyme that adss a phosphate from a molecule

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when a G-protein is activated, what happens to it

  • it splits and binds to a membrane enzyme

  • it cab trigger ion channels to open