The 67 Quiz

Q1: in flow spectrometry

All of these statements are correct

Active immunity

Can be acquired following natural infection by a pathogen or by vaccination

An ELISA analysis is most typically used for:

Detecting and quantitating the levels of antibodies in serum

Chose the statement that best describes an endocrine cytokine

A cytokine that is carrier through the bloodstream to distally located cells

What is the characteristic feature of a secondary lymphoid organ?

Antigen-driven activation of immune cells

In patients with X-linked agammaglobulinemia (XLA) the frequency of viral and fungal infections often remains normal as:

Cell mediated immunity is normal

Allergens commonly associated with contact dermatitis include:

Poison ivy and nickel

Which is the first class of immunoglobulin produced in a primary response to an antigen and what is its main function in this role?

IgM: activates complement to the amplify the inflammatory and adaptive response

Q9: From an evolutionary point of view _______(1)_______ is generally considered to be the
most ancient cell type with immune-cell properties and _____(2)______ is generally
considered to be the most ancient lymphoid tissue.

Amebocyte/GALT

The majority of B-cells and T-cells can be found in:

Lymph Nodes

The cell type responsible for inducing the differentiation of B-cell into plasmocytes are

TH2 cells

Degranulation of mast cells and basophils:

Results in rapid vasodilation and smooth muscle contraction

an example(s) of clonal expansion is/are which of the following

Both of theses are examples of colonel expansion

which of the following cell type is generally considered to be non-professional in
reference to its ability to present antigens?

Fibroblasts

Omalizumab is a medication that consists of a monoclonal antibody that specifically binds to free human lgE as well as membrane bound human lgE found on the surface of B-lymphocytes. Omalizumab does not bind to human IgE that is bound by high affinity lgE receptors on mast cells and basophils. Consider these properties of Omalizumab and the knowledge you have gained in this course to answer the following: Why is the inability of Omalizumab to bind to lgE on mast cells and basophils an important property?

This property avoids adverse reactions arising from cross linking of IgE on mast cells and basophils and the subsequent release of granules from these cells.

Hybridoma Cells:

Secrete one identical antibody

A remarkable property of Yersinia pestis, a bacterial pathogen and causative agent of the plague, is that it changes the composition of the lipid A component of the lipopolysaccharide (LPS) on its surface in a temperature-dependent manner. At 270C, its lipid A carries 6 acyl groups (hexa-acylated) whereas at 370C (human body temperature), its lipid A carries 4 acyl groups (tetra-acylated). The acylation status of Y. pestis lipid A affects its ability to activate toll-like receptor 4 (TLR4): the hexa- acylated form is far superior to the tetra-acylated form in terms of evoking TLR4 activation responses. Consider your knowledge of LPS and TLR4 to answer the following: LPS is an example of a __________(1)______ while TLR4 is an example of a

________(2)_________

PAMP/PRR

Omalizumab is a medication that consists of a monoclonal antibody that specifically binds to free human lgE as well as membrane bound human lgE found on the surface of B-lymphocytes. Omalizumab does not bind to human igE that is bound by high affinity IgE receptors on mast cells and basophils. Consider these properties of Omalizumab and the knowledge you have gained in this course to answer the
following: Which type of hypersensitivity is Omalizumab designed to treat?

Type I hypersensitivity

Diphtheria vaccine is an example of:

a toxoid vaccine

Which type of hypersensitivity reaction is mismatched?

Type I - Delayed-type hypersensitivity

A melanoma (skin cancer) patient is advised surgery for removal of his tumour. At the time of pathological evaluation following surgery, the pathologist orders an immunohistochemistry test to determine the number of TIL in the tumour section. Based on the results he reports that the patient will probably have a good overall survival. Consider the knowledge you have gained in this course to answer the following: Which cell type number did the pathologist measure in the tumours to report his prognosis?

Number of CD8+ cells

In an untreated individual, the progression from primary infection with HIV to AIDS typically occurs:

several years after primary infection.

In the process of T-cell dependent B-cell activation, helper T cells differentiate into

_________(1)______ upon encountering antigens derived from _______(2)_______ presented

in the context of ______(3)________

TH2 cells/internal pathogen/MHC class II

Q25: The ______ is a phagocyte with a lifespan of only a few days following an infection

Neutrophil

During anaphylaxis, which of the following is released by mast cells?

Histamine

What are CD4 and CD8?

Co-receptors involved in recognition of MHC-presented antigens by T-cells.

Some vaccines require additional injections of the vaccine after the initial injection referred to as "booster shots". What, specifically, is being boosted by booster shots?

The level of memory B and T cells.

Which of the following is NOT an example of pathogen-associated molecular pattern?

Heat shock protein

Radiation sickness occurs when a person is exposed to very high doses of ionizing
radiation such as those in the immediate vicinity of a nuclear accident. In particular the bone
marrow of individuals with radiation sickness is severely damaged or completely destroyed
from the radiation exposure. Consider the immunological status of an individual with
radiation sickness and the knowledge you have gained in this course to answer the following:
which of the following outcomes would you expect for an individual with radiation sickness?

Increased susceptibility to infection and increased incidence of cancer.

Choose the most precise description of a prion.

A prion is a disease-causing agent composed only of protein.

Co-stimulatory molecule ______(1)______ on _______(2)______ binding to
co-stimulatory molecule _______(3)_______ on _____(4)______ is one important signaling
interaction in T-cell dependent B-cell activation.

B7/B-cells/CD28/helper T-cells

Which of the following is an example of artificial passive immunity?

Treatment with serum antibodies.

The Arthus reaction, named after Nicolas Maurice Arthus who first described it in 1903, involves localized formation of antigen/antibody complexes after the injection of an antigen and is typified by pain and edema at the injection site. Consider the knowledge you have gained in this course to answer the following: The Arthus reaction is an example of which type of hypersensitivity?

Type III hypersensitivity

Which is NOT the outcome of B-cell activation in a healthy individual?

Differentiation of B-cells into helper B-cells

A remarkable property of Yersinia pestis, a bacterial pathogen and causative agent of the plague, is that it changes the composition of the lipid A component of the lipopolysaccharide (LPS) on its surface in a temperature-dependent manner. At 270C, its lipid A carries 6 acyl groups (hexa-acylated) whereas at 370C (human body temperature), its lipid A carries 4 acyl groups (tetra-acylated). The acylation status of Y. pestis lipid A affects its ability to activate toll-like receptor 4 (TLR4): the hexa- acylated form is far superior to the tetra-acylated form in terms of evoking TLR4 activation responses. Consider your knowledge of PS and TLR4 to answer the following: Why might having a tetra-acylated LPS be beneficial for the pathogenesis of Y. pestis in humans?

The weakened activation of TLR4 could weaken both the initial innate immune response as well as the subsequent adaptive immune response against Y. pestis.

A melanoma (skin cancer) patient is advised surgery for removal of his tumour. At the time of pathological evaluation following surgery, the pathologist orders an immunohistochemistry test to determine the number of TIL in the tumour section. Based on the results he reports that the patient will probably have a good overall survival. Consider the knowledge you have gained in this course to answer the following: Given the prognosis of a good overall survival, what other conclusion can be reasonably drawn in regards to this patient's tumour?

The tumour is likely composed of cancer cells that are in the first two phases of the immunoediting process.

Immunoscore is based on an immunological technique called

Immunohistochemistry.

Radiation sickness occurs when a person is exposed to very high doses of ionizing radiation, such as those in the immediate vicinity of a nuclear accident. In particular. the bone marrow of individuals with radiation sickness is severely damaged or completely destroyed from the radiation exposure. Consider the immunological status of an individual with radiation sickness and the knowledge you have gained in this course to answer the following: What type of immunodeficiency is radiation sickness?

Secondary immunodeficiency

The level of glutamic acid decarboxylase (GAD) autoantibodies in a patient's blood is often used as a diagnostic and prognostic test for type 1 diabetes. Consider the knowledge you have gained in this course to answer the following: Which of the following best describes an autoantibody?

An autoantibody is an antibody produced by the immune system that is directed against a self antigen.

Which statement regarding antibody production is NOT correct?

Antibody production is an example of an innate immune response.

A 35-year-old individual receives a seasonal flu vaccine injection and is then asked to wait in the clinic for 15 minutes so that adverse reaction to the vaccine can be monitored. Consider the knowledge you have gained in this course about vaccination to answer the following: The flu vaccine that this individual has received is most likely:

a killed inactivated vaccine

Autoimmune diseases:

often involve autoantibodies.

Which statement most accurately describes virus like particle (VLP) vaccines?

VP vaccines are composed of viral structural proteins that structurally resemble human
papillomavirus (HPV).

The major characteristic that distinguishes PAMPs from DAMPs is:

whether or not the molecular pattern is associated with a pathogen or a host biomolecule.

Which group of cytokines is most commonly associated with induction of an antiviral state during a viral infection?

Interferons

Which of the following are characteristics of memory B-cells?

All of these are characteristics of memory B-cells

The level of glutamic acid decarboxylase (GAD) autoantibodies in a patient's blood is often used as a diagnostic and prognostic test for type 1 diabetes. Consider the knowledge you have gained in this course to answer the following: The blood-based GAD test involves which of the following immunological assays?

Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay

The Arthus reaction, named after Nicolas Maurice Arthus who first described it in 1903, involves localized formation of antigen/antibody complexes after the injection of an antigen and is typified by pain and edema at the injection site. Consider the knowledge you have gained in this course to answer the following: What is edema?

Swelling caused by the accumulation of fluids.

Choose the correct pathway for generation of a Natural killer cell.

hematopoietic stem cell > Lymphoid progenitor > Natural killer cell

Which statement most accurately describes a phagosome?

A phagosome is a special bed vacuole within a cell that forms following the enclosure of
foreign material by the pseudopodia of a phagocytic cell.

A 35-year-old individual receives a seasonal flu vaccine injection and is then asked to
wait in the clinic for 15 minutes so that adverse reaction to the vaccine can be
monitored. Consider the knowledge you have gained in this course about vaccination
to answer the following: An adverse reaction to the flu vaccine occurring within the
15-minute waiting period would most likely be due to:

type I hypersensitivity.

Which of the following is an example of a prokaryotic disease-causing organism?

Plasmodium falciparum

Surgical correction of congenital heart defects in infants sometimes requires removal
of the thymus so that the surgeon has better access to the heart. Consider the
immunological consequences for an individual who is lacking a thymus and the
knowledge you have gained in this course to answer the following: Which cell type
would researchers monitor as a direct indicator of the immunological consequences
of lacking a thymus?

Naive T-cells

Penicillin-induced hemolytic anemia is an example of ______(1)____ hypersensitivity
because of_____(2)_______

type Il/immunoglobulin cell-surface binding

Which of the following are examples of chemical innate immune barriers?

Tears and saliva.

Surgical correction of congenital heart defects in infants sometimes requires removal
of the thymus so that the surgeon has better access to the heart. Consider the
immunological consequences for an individual who is lacking a thymus and the
knowledge you have gained in this course to answer the following: What type of
lymphoid organ is the thymus?

Primary

Primary immunodeficiency disorders can be caused by inborn defects or deficiencies
in:

defects or deficiencies in any of these can give rise to primary immune disorders.

Which characteristic is shared between the two main branches of the immune
system?

Discrimination of self from non-self

Tonsils are an example of:

mucosal associated lymphoid tissue.

Sharks are among the oldest living creatures with an immune system. Sharks produce a unique type of antibody, gNAR (Immunoglobulin new antigen receptor) that was recently determined to have the structure shown in the accompanying figure. Consider the shark IgNAR to answer the following: Compared with the basic structure of human antibodies that you have learned about in this course, which components do shark gNARs lack?

Light chains

Which cell type is generally appreciated as having the largest capacity to carry out
phagocytosis?

Macrophages.

Sharks are among the oldest living creatures with an immune system. Sharks produce a unique type of antibody, IgNAR (Immunoglobulin new antigen receptor) that was recently determined to have the structure shown in the accompanying figure. Consider the shark gNAR to answer the following: The presence of antibodies in sharks demonstrate how ancient this immune system is.

adaptive

Order the steps of the cancer-immunity cycle: Release, antigen presentation, priming and activation, trafficking of t-cells, infiltration of

t-cells, recognition, killing

Rude Pirates Attack, Then Infiltrate, Recognize, Kill (Release, Present, Activate, Travel, Invade, Recognize, Kill)