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Which of the following drugs is a blood thinner?
Coumadin
An order reads, "Tylenol 325mg pr q4h prn." What dosage form is required?
Suppositories
How many grams of 5% hydrocortisone ointment can be made with 10 grams of hydrocortisone powder?
200 g
Which of the following dosage forms has a parenteral route of administration?
Suspension
A compounded prescription calls for 600 grams of white petroleum. How many 1-pound (lb.) jars should you obtain so there is enough to prepare this prescription?
2
How many 500 mg Metronidazole tablets will you need to make a 2-week supply of Metronidazole oral solution for a patient who must take 500 mg per nasogastric (NG) tube BID?
28 tablets
You receive a prescription that says, "Amoxicillin 400 MG/5 mL; Sig: 1 TSP PO TID; Dispense 150 mL. How many days should this prescription last?
10 days
What is a DUR?
A situation or interaction in which a pharmacist should be notified
The term "DAW" is defined as:
Dispense as written
What would an auxiliary label for a Nystatin suspension say?
Shake well
Which of the following must a pharmacist complete a DEA Form-222 to secure a supply?
All of the above
An order is received for Clopidogrel 75 MG. Which medication should be filled?
Plavix
Which of the following drug classes are also known as "water pills"?
Diuretic
How much change should be given to a patient who gives you $50 to pay for 3 prescriptions if the prescription plan's copay is $10 per prescription?
$20
Which of the following medications is a benzodiazepine?
Clonazepam
1 1/2 tablespoons is equivalent to how many mL?
22.5 mL
What volume of 2% Erythromycin solution can be made from 15 grams of erythromycin powder?
750 mL
What is the day supply for Humulin-N, 20 mL, Sig: 40 units QD?
50 days
What is the gross profit for a prescription if the selling price is $73.14, the acquisition cost is $52.10, and the average wholesale price (AWP) is $65.12?
$21.04
Oxycodone, Hydromorphone, Morphine, and Hydrocodone all belong to which controlled substance schedule?
II
What is the days supply for Metronidazole Vaginal Gel; 70 grams; Sig: 5 g BID?
7 days
Which government agency is responsible for safety in the workplace?
OSHA
Which of the following vitamins is involved in increased clotting?
Vitamin K
CMS has determined a patient has dual eligibility. Which two insurances will they have?
Medicare and Medicaid
A patient hands you an empty vial for Methylphenidate ER 20mg and asks for the prescription to be refilled. What should the technician do?
Tell the patient that the medicine is not refillable
If a patient called in a refill for an NSAID, which drug would be refilled?
Naproxen
Which of the following medications treats seizures?
Carbamazepine
How long is a prescription for a Schedule III drug valid for from the time it was written?
6 months
To complete a TPN (total parenteral nutrition) bag for a patient, a doctor orders 45 units of Humulin R (U-100) to be added. How many mL is to be added?
0.45 mL
How many MCG of Digoxin are in 0.4 mL of Digoxin solution if the strength of the solution is 50 MCG per mL?
20 MCG
The NDC on a medication bottle refers to the:
All of the above
NSAIDS, such as Naproxen and Ibuprofen, should be taken:
with food or milk
Which of the following drugs commonly uses a loading dose in its directions because of how it is packaged?
Azithromycin
A patient is to receive 100 MG/KG/day of Ampicillin. What is the total daily dose for a patient that weighs 40 lbs.?
1.8 g
A patient package insert (PPI) should be included with:
All of the above
You receive a prescription for Adderall that was written on January 2nd. When is the last day the pharmacy can fill and dispense the prescription?
January 31st
A prescription with the directions "1 gtt as tid prn pain" would be dispensed with which of the following directions?
Instill one drop in the right eye three times daily as needed for pain
A prescription has been written for Prevacid 30 MG; Dispense: 100; 1 cap po qd; with 2 refills. However, the patient's insurance will only allow a 34-day supply. If the original prescription is filled for 34 capsules, how many refills of 34 would be available?
7 refills
You are filling an order that requires 80mg of Gentamicin. How many mL of Gentamicin solution should be measured for a 2 mL vial of Gentamicin 40MG/mL?
2 mL
How much Vancomycin should be given per dose for a child that weighs 32 lbs. if the dose is 10MG/KG Q6h IV?
145 mg
A 500 mL IV bag is administered over 4 hours. Which of the following is the correct infusion rate?
125 mL/hr
A 500 mL IV bag is infused at a rate of 100 mL/hr. How long will the bag last?
5 hours
You receive a prescription for Lantus insulin. You are to dispense 1 (10 ml) vial, and the directions are: 10 units TID. What is the days' supply?
33 days
What is a benzodiazepine?
Medicines that relieve anxiety
What is the difference between Sudafed and Sudafed PE?
Sudafed contains pseudoephedrine and Sudafed PE contains phenylephrine.
A doctor has prescribed a patient a drug order for the following. Medrol Dosepak 10 MG: 40mg QD x 2 days, 30mg QD x 3 days, 20mg QD x 4 days, 10mg QD x 5 days. How many tablets should be dispensed?
30
A new product has arrived at the pharmacy. The storage requirements on the label read: Store at 1.5 degrees to 3.3 degrees Celsius. Where would you store them?
Refrigerator
Which DEA Schedule contains substances with the least potential for abuse?
V
A script for Zolpidem 10mg will expire after_____and may have up to____refills.
6 months; 5 refills
Mrs. Johnson asks you to refill her "heart medication". Which of the following medications from her profile will you refill?
Lisinopril
Which of the following drugs is a Schedule I controlled substance?
Heroin
What is the primary function/use for Rosiglitazone?
Antidiabetic
How many mg are in a 1/4 grain Armour Thyroid tablet?
15 mg
A patient asks you to refill her "pink water pills". Which drug from her patient profile will you select?
Hydrochlorothiazide
The generic name for Seroquel is:
Quetiapine
Which of the following drugs is in the same therapeutic class as Effexor?
Cymbalta
A patient buys her Lantus U-100 insulin and syringes at your pharmacy. If she uses 52 units of insulin at bedtime, which size syringe is best for her?
1 mL
A patient comes in and is out of refills on her Lisinopril. She asks for three tablets to get her through the weekend. As the technician, you should:
Tell the patient that you will ask the pharmacist to do an emergency supply because it is a maintenance medication that she needs to stay on, and that denying her the medication would put her health in danger.
What is the generic name for Z-Pak? How many tablets are in a Z-Pak?
Azithromycin; 6
What is the percentage strength of sodium chloride in a 250mL IV of NS?
0.9%
How many bottles of Humulin R would be dispensed for a 90-day supply if the prescription states "Inject 10 units SC every morning, 8 units SC at lunch, and 12 units SC at bedtime?
3
The last two digits of an NDC number indicate:
Package size
Which of the following is a beta blocker?
Metoprolol
Which agency accredits hospital standards?
TJC
A patient who is allergic to penicillins has a chance of cross-sensitivity to which?
Cephalosporins
How many grams of 2.5% hydrocortisone ointment can be made with 4g of hydrocortisone powder?
160g
Which of the following correctly matches brand/generic names?
Cymbalta/Duloxetine
Which of the following programs is related to the dispensing of isotretinoin-containing products?
ipledge
What type of LAFW is needed to make chemotherapy?
Vertical
Match the following insurance rejections to what they mean.
Prior Authorization Required: The insurance does not want to pay for this certain medication because there is likely cheaper alternatives available. The pharmacy tech needs to call the prescriber's office and inform them of the rejection.
Non-Matched Cardholder ID: The ID number that was entered for the patient is likely incorrect or missing a person code.
DUR: The way the drug is being utilized needs to be reviewed by the pharmacist. This could be refill too soon, duplicate therapy, contraindications, etc.
Plan Limitations Exceeded:Either the quantity that is being billed or the day supply is more than what the plan will cover. This could be that a prescription must last 30 days, or that the doctor wrote for 90 days worth but the insurance will only pay for 30 days' supply, etc.
Drug Not Covered:The insurance plan will not pay for the prescribed medication.
Match the insurance plans or lack thereof to the correct definition.
Private: An insurance plan paid for by the patient's employer or by the patient themselves.
Medicare: A government plan that is used for patients who are over 65 or are disabled.
Medicaid: A government plan that is used for patients who are low-income or are disabled.
Tricare: A government plan that is used for patients who are active-duty or retired military.
Cash Pay: An option patients have if they don't have insurance or their insurance won't pay for a prescription.
Match the following Medicare plans to what they provider coverage for.
Medicare Part A: Hospital Insurance: Inpatient care, skilled nursing facility care, home health, and hospice care.
Medicare Part B: Doctor's visits, preventative care, lab tests, diabetic testing supplies, durable medical equipment
Medicare Part C: Not a separate Medicare benefit; this is the Advantage part of Medicare that allows private health insurance companies to provide the same benefit as original Medicare.
Medicare Part D: Outpatient prescription drug coverage.
Match the follow Dispense as Written (DAW) codes to their definition.
DAW-0: No Product Selection Indicated - Neither the patient nor the prescriber requested the brand name.
DAW-1: Substitution Not Allowed By Prescriber - The prescriber requested the brand name drug be dispensed.
DAW-2: Substitution Allowed - Patient Requested Brand Product Be Dispensed - The patient requested the brand name but the prescriber didn't; may cause copay to be even higher.
DAW-3: Substitution Allowed - Pharmacist Selected Product Dispensed - The pharmacist selected the brand name for a variety of reason.
Match the following drug classes to what they treat.
Antibiotic: Sinus infection
Antifungal: Athlete's foot
Antiviral: Herpes Simplex Virus (HSV-1) (i.e. cold sores)
Diuretic: Water retention (edema)
Analgesic: Pain
Hypnotic: Insomnia
CNS Stimulant: ADD/ADHD
Antitussive: Cough
Expectorant: Clearing respiratory congestion
Anthistamine: Itchy eyes, runny nose, hives
Match the following drug names to what they treat.
Venlafaxine: Depression
Clonazepam: Anxiety
Pantoprazole: Acid reflux
Triamcinolone: Eczema
Pseudoephedrine: Stuffy nose
Rosuvastatin: High cholesterol
Metformin: Diabetes
Match the following drugs with the drug, food, or condition it has a negative interaction (contraindication) with.
Isotretinoin (Amnesteem, Claravis, Sotret, etc.): Pregnancy
Coumadin: Vitamin K
Pseudoephedrine: Hypertension
Klor-Con (Potassium Chloride): Spironolactone (think of the drug class)
Oral Contraceptives: Antibiotics
Viagra (Sildenafil): Nitrates
SSRI Antidepressants: Migraine Drugs and Analgesics
Tetracycline Antibiotics: Dairy
Match the following drugs to their DEA schedule (you can use options more than once).
Heroin: C-I
Lisdexamfetamine: C-II
Buprenorphine: C-III
Diazepam: C-IV
Guaifenesin/Codeine: C-V
Pregabalin: C-V
Carisoprodol: C-IV
Tylenol #3: C-III
Marijuana (whole plant): C-I
Fentanyl: C-II
Statins (i.e. Simvastatin) refer to which drug class?
Antihyperlipidemics
-Prazole (i.e. Omeprazole) refers to which drug class?
Proton Pump Inhibitors
-Artan (i.e. Losartan), -olol (i.e. Metoprolol), and -pril (i.e. Lisinopril) refer to which drug class?
Antihypertensives
-Itidine (i.e. famotidine) refers to which drug class?
H2 Receptor Antagonist
Drugs that end in -pam or -lam are in which drug class?
Benzodiazepines
Drugs that end in -triptan treat what?
Migraines
Drugs that start with cef- or ceph- are which drug class?
Antibiotics
Drugs that end in -codone are which drug class?
Analgesic
Brand Name: Abilify
Generic Name: Aripiprazole
Drug Class: Antipsycotic
Generic Name: Carisoprodol
Brand Name: Soma
Drug Class: Muscle Relaxer
DEA Schedule: IV
Brand Name: Singulair
Generic Name: Montelukast
Drug Class: Leukotriene Antagonist
Brand Name: Ambien
Generic Name: zolpidem
Drug Class: Hypnotic
DEA Schedule: IV
Generic Name: Clopidogrel
Brand Name: Plavix
Drug Class: Anticoagulant
Brand Name: Ultram
Generic Name: Tramadol
Drug Class: Analgesic
DEA Schedule: IV
Generic Name: Tizanidine
Brand Name: Zanaflex
Drug Class: Muscle Relaxer
Brand Name: Viagra
Generic Name: Sildenafil
Drug Class: Erectile Dysfunction Drug
Generic Name: Levothyroxine
Brand Name: Synthroid
Drug Class: Thyroid Hormone
Brand Name: Flexeril
Generic Name: Cyclobenzaprine
Drug Class: Muscle Relaxer
Brand Name: Proventil, Ventolin, ProAir, Accuneb
Generic Name: Albuterol
Drug Class: Broncodialator
Brand Name: Lamictal
Generic Name: lamotrigine
Drug Class: anticonvulsants
Generic Name: Fluoxetine
Brand Name: Prozac
Drug Class: Antidepressants
Brand Name: Nexium
Generic Name: Esomeprazole
Drug Class: PPI
Brand Name: Coumadin
Generic Name: Warfarin
Drug Class: Anticoagulant