pharmaco 60lı tüm slaytlar var

What are the three major mechanisms of arrhythmias?

Increased automaticity, afterdepolarizations (EAD/DAD), and reentry.

What is the most common mechanism of tachyarrhythmias?

Reentry.

What is EAD associated with?

Phase 2–3, prolonged QT, torsades de pointes.

What is DAD associated with?

Phase 4, intracellular Ca²⁺ overload, digoxin toxicity.

What are the Vaughan Williams antiarrhythmic classes?

Class I Na⁺ blockers, Class II β-blockers, Class III K⁺ blockers, Class IV Ca²⁺ blockers.

Which antiarrhythmic causes cinchonism?

Quinidine.

Which antiarrhythmic causes drug-induced lupus?

Procainamide.

Which antiarrhythmic causes anticholinergic effects?

Disopyramide.

Which antiarrhythmic is also a local anesthetic?

Lidocaine.

Which antiarrhythmic is used in digoxin-induced ventricular arrhythmias?

Lidocaine.

Which antiarrhythmics should be avoided in structural heart disease?

Flecainide and Propafenone.

What are the hallmark toxicities of amiodarone?

Pulmonary fibrosis, thyroid dysfunction, hepatotoxicity, corneal deposits.

Which antiarrhythmic has a half-life less than 10 seconds?

Adenosine.

What is the drug of choice for torsades de pointes?

IV Magnesium sulfate.

What ECG change is characteristic of β-blockers?

Increased PR interval.

What ECG change is characteristic of Class III antiarrhythmics?

Increased QT interval.

What is anemia?

Decreased Hb, hematocrit, or RBC mass causing reduced oxygen-carrying capacity.

What are the three major causes of anemia?

Decreased RBC production, increased RBC destruction, blood loss.

What type of anemia is iron deficiency anemia?

Microcytic hypochromic anemia.

What is the best indicator of iron stores?

Ferritin.

What is the iron profile in iron deficiency anemia?

↓ Ferritin, ↑ TIBC, ↓ Serum iron.

What is the iron profile in anemia of inflammation?

↑/Normal Ferritin, ↓/Normal TIBC.

What is the major regulator of iron metabolism?

Hepcidin.

Where is hepcidin produced?

Liver.

What does hepcidin do?

Binds ferroportin and decreases iron absorption/release.

What differentiates B12 deficiency from folate deficiency?

B12 deficiency causes neurologic symptoms.

What happens to MMA and homocysteine in B12 deficiency?

Both increase.

What happens to MMA in folate deficiency?

Normal.

What causes pernicious anemia?

Intrinsic factor deficiency.

Where is vitamin B12 absorbed?

Terminal ileum.

What is the major indication for ESA therapy?

Anemia of chronic kidney disease.

Which drugs are ESAs?

Epoetin alfa, Darbepoetin alfa.

What are the major adverse effects of ESA therapy?

Hypertension and thrombosis.

Which growth factor stimulates neutrophil production?

G-CSF.

Which drugs are G-CSF analogs?

Filgrastim, Pegfilgrastim.

What is the most common adverse effect of filgrastim?

Bone pain.

Which drugs are TPO receptor agonists?

Romiplostim, Eltrombopag.

What is the major indication of Romiplostim/Eltrombopag?

Chronic ITP.

What vitamin treats sideroblastic anemia?

Pyridoxine (Vitamin B6).

What is the hallmark feature of asthma?

Reversible airway obstruction.

What spirometry finding supports asthma diagnosis?

FEV1 increase ≥12% and ≥200 mL.

What is the diagnostic criterion for COPD?

Post-bronchodilator FEV1/FVC <0.7.

What is the most effective controller medication in asthma?

Inhaled corticosteroids (ICS).

What is the most common adverse effect of ICS?

Oral candidiasis.

Why should patients rinse their mouth after ICS use?

To prevent oral candidiasis.

Which drugs are SABA?

Salbutamol, Terbutaline.

Which drugs are LABA?

Salmeterol, Formoterol.

Which LABA can be used as both controller and reliever?

Formoterol.

Which ultra-LABA is mainly used in COPD?

Indacaterol.

What are the major adverse effects of β₂ agonists?

Tremor, tachycardia, hypokalemia.