Neuro Oph

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Last updated 1:27 AM on 6/18/26
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43 Terms

1
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What are the three classic signs of Horner's Syndrome that occurs on the ipsilateral side of the lesion?

  1. Partial ptosis

  2. Miosis (with anisocoria)

  3. Anhidrosis

2
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Typical (acute) optic neuritis is a demyelinating condition that is most commonly associated with __________

Multiple Sclerosis (MS)

3
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 A 28-year-old female presents with subacute, unilateral vision changes over 7 days and severe pain behind her left eye when looking around. Exam shows reduced pupillary response in that eye, but the fundoscopic exam looks completely normal. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Typical Optic Neuritis

4
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What is the definition of Papilledema, and what is its primary etiology?

Swelling of the optic disc due to increased intracranial pressure (ICP)

5
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________ is a fine rhythmic, involuntary oscillation of one or both eyes stemming from an instability in the neural pathways.

Nystagmus

6
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A lesion localized directly at the optic chiasm results in a visual field defect known as __________.

Bitemporal hemianopsia (or heteronymous hemianopia)

7
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A 62-year-old patient with a history of poorly controlled diabetes mellitus presents with the sudden onset of horizontal double vision. On physical exam, when the patient attempts to look toward the left, the left eye fails to move outward past the midline. What condition is present?

Left 6th Cranial Nerve (Abducens) Palsy

8
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What are the diagnostic tests used to identify and localize the lesion order in Horner’s Syndrome?

  • Apraclonidine/cocaine drops for diagnosis

  • Hydroxyamphetamine drops for localization

9
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What is the gold standard 1st line treatment for Typical Optic Neuritis?

IV methylprednisolone (followed by an oral prednisone taper)

10
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A __________ occurs because the medial, superior, and inferior recti, along with the inferior oblique, are paralyzed, leaving the lateral rectus and superior oblique completely unopposed.

Oculomotor (CN III) palsy ("down and out")

11
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The clinical sign seen on the swinging light exam for a Relative Afferent Pupillary Defect (RAPD) is called a _____________.

Marcus Gunn pupil

12
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A 45-year-old male presents with acute onset of vertical double vision. He notes that the blurring is worse when he looks down to read or walk down the stairs. On observation, he has a noticeable tilt of his head toward his left shoulder. What is the suspected diagnosis?

Right 4th Cranial Nerve (Trochlear) Palsy

13
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Due to the high risk of compressed structures, all 3rd nerve palsies—even pupil-sparing presentations—must be imaged immediately with a _________.

CTA or MRI of the brain

14
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What are the key clinical features of Typical Optic Neuritis?

  • Unilateral, ages 20-40

  • Female > Male

  • Subacute vision loss over 5-14 days

  • Highly associated with MS

  • Usually recovers spontaneously

15
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What are the key clinical features of Atypical Optic Neuritis?

  • Bilateral involvement

  • Quick/more severe vision loss (sometimes no light perception),

  • Less likely to recover

  • More common optic disc swelling

  • Associated with non-MS autoimmune conditions (AQP4-IgG, MOG-IgG) or infections

16
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The diagnostic test used to differentiate between monocular and binocular diplopia is the __________ test.

Cover-uncover (or covering each eye separately)

17
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What are the key findings on an ophthalmoscopic exam for a patient with Papilledema?

Swollen optic discs bilaterally with blurred margins and congested discs

18
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A 34-year-old male presents with sudden weakness of the entire right side of his face. He cannot furrow his brow, close his right eye, or smile on the right side. He also notes a loss of taste. What neuro-ophthalmologic emergency risk must be addressed?

Corneal exposure/damage due to inability to close the eye (Bell's Palsy)

19
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___________ occurs in a completely blind eye (e.g., complete optic nerve transection); shining light into the affected eye yields zero pupillary constriction in either eye.

Absolute Afferent Pupillary Defect (APD)

20
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____________ is an asymmetric afferent pathway defect where the affected eye still senses light but weakly, causing both pupils to appear to relatively dilate when the light swings from the normal to affected.

Relative Afferent Pupillary Defect (RAPD)

21
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The diagnostic study used in neuro-ophthalmology to measure the thickness of the retinal nerve fiber layer is called __________.

Optical Coherence Tomography (OCT)

22
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What does the clinical pearl rule, the “Three Ps”, mean for 3rd Nerve Palsy presentation?

  • Palsy

  • Ptosis

  • Pupil involvement

23
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 A 52-year-old female presents with severe, constant headaches, nausea, and short, transient episodes of blurred vision in both eyes. A fundoscopic exam reveals severe bilateral optic disc swelling with obscured margins. What diagnostic step must be avoided before imaging?

Lumbar puncture must be avoided until neuroimaging rules out a mass

24
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What causes the visual field defect known as Left Homonymous Hemianopsia?

A lesion of the Right Optic Tract

25
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A partial lesion of the optic radiation in the temporal lobe (Meyer's Loop) produces a distinct visual defect called a __________.

Left Superior Quadrantanopia (or "pie in the sky" defect)

26
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What is the first-line treatment pathway for Atypical Optic Neuritis?

High-dose IV methylprednisolone followed by an oral prednisone taper

27
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What is the treatment pathway for Atypical Optic Neuritis if the first-line steroid therapy fails?

Plasmapheresis (plasma exchange)

28
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A 22-year-old male presents with sudden onset of dizziness and the sensation that his surroundings are spinning (vertigo). When testing his extraocular movements, you note a rhythmic, involuntary up-and-down pattern of eye movement when he looks upward. How is this classified?

Acquired Vertical Nystagmus

29
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What clinical pearl distinguishes a postganglionic (third-order) Horner's Syndrome lesion from a preganglionic lesion when using hydroxyamphetamine drops?

In a postganglionic lesion, the affected pupil will not dilate

30
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The pupillary constriction reflex to light is mediated by parasympathetic nerve fibers traveling along Cranial Nerve __________.

III (Oculomotor Nerve)

31
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What are the common etiologies of an acquired 4th Cranial Nerve Palsy?

  • Diabetes mellitus (microvascular ischemia)

  • Head trauma

32
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A 31-year-old female with a history of vision changes is found to have a pale, very light-colored optic disc on a routine fundoscopic exam. What pathology does this light color signify?

Optic Atrophy

33
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What specialized diagnostic test is used to evaluate how visual stimuli physically affect your brain's electrical activity?

Visual Evoked Response (VER)

34
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An inequality in the diameter size of a patient's pupils is medically termed __________.

Anisocoria

35
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A 38-year-old female presents with bilateral, severe vision loss that developed abruptly over 48 hours. She notes no improvement after two weeks of observation, and a fundoscopic exam shows extensive bilateral optic disc swelling. Testing for MOG-IgG returns positive. What is the diagnosis?

Atypical Optic Neuritis

36
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What are the secondary and tertiary actions of the Superior Rectus muscle?

  • Incyclotorsion (secondary)

  • Adduction (tertiary)

37
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What is the long-term prognosis for a patient diagnosed with an episode of Typical Optic Neuritis?

There is a 50% risk of developing MS within 15 years.

38
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A complete lesion or interruption of the left calcarine cortex (occipital lobe) results in a visual defect called __________.

Right Homonymous Hemianopia

39
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 A 40-year-old patient presents with binocular diplopia. During your history, you review their medication list. Which classes of medications are known to cause double vision as a side effect?

  • Anti-epileptics

  • Amlodipine

  • Pravastatin

  • Sildenafil

  • Sertraline

  • Benzodiazepines

  • Botox

40
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What anatomical structure represents the "blind spot" of the eye, and why?

The optic disc, because it contains no visual photoreceptors (rods or cones)

41
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What nerve loops form a three-neuron sympathetic pathway to the eye, and where do they originate?

  • First-order (hypothalamus)

  • Second-order (C8-T2 to lung apex)

  • Third-order (internal carotid artery to face)

42
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When a lesion selectively destroys only the cuneus region of the occipital lobe, it produces a visual defect called a __________.

Inferior Quadrantanopia

43
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A 24-year-old graduate student presents with subacute vision loss in her right eye accompanied by retrobulbar pain upon moving the eye. An MRI of the orbits shows enhancement of the right optic nerve. What is the recommended treatment plan?

Urgent referral to ophthalmology and initiation of high-dose IV methylprednisolone