PSYC 2200: tests one, two, and three

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Last updated 4:30 PM on 5/5/26
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113 Terms

1
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Which of the following are true about neurons?

Option A

Neurons come in many different shapes and sizes

Option B

Neurons are present in the central and peripheral nervous system

Option C

Neurons are independent cells, each with their own structure and metabolism

Option D

Information is transmitted from one neuron to another across tiny gaps

Option E

All are correct

Option E

2
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Which of the following statements about glial cells is FALSE

Option A

Glial cells play an important role in brain development

Option B

There are 4 main types of glial cells

Option C

Glial cells transmit information to one another through electrical communication

Option D

Glial cells provide support functions that allow the nervous system to function correctly

Option C

3
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What type of cell is responsible for providing myelin sheaths to neuronal axons in the brain?

Option A

Bipolar cells

Option B

Oligodendrocytes

Option C

Inhibitory neurons

Option D

Astrocytes

Option B

4
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Which division of the nervous system is responsible for carrying signals that control subconscious aspects of our body including breathing and digestion?

Option A

The autonomic nervous system

Option B

The cerebellum

Option C

The somatic nervous system

Option D

The limbic system

Option E

The central nervous system

Option A

5
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wo species of bats hunt using different methods. The Big Brown Bat hunts at night using echolocation, a specialized form of hearing. The Flying fox hunts in the daytime and during twilight using its vision. Overall, 70% of bats hunt using echolocation, while only 30% of bats hunt using vision.

Which is most likely true about the auditory cortex of the Flying Fox?

Option A

The flying fox will not have an auditory cortex

Option B

The flying fox will have a smaller auditory cortex than the big brown bat

Option C

The flying fox will have the same size auditory cortex as the big brown bat

Option D

The flying fox will have a larger auditory cortex than the big brown bat

Option B

6
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Two species of bats hunt using different methods. The Big Brown Bat hunts at night using echolocation, a specialized form of hearing. The Flying fox hunts in the daytime and during twilight using its vision. Overall, 70% of bats hunt using echolocation, while only 30% of bats hunt using vision.

Which scenario best describes how these bats likely evolved?

Option A

The big brown bat evolved from the flying fox

Option B

The flying fox evolved from the big brown bat

Option C

Both bat species evolved from a common ancestor that could hear but not see

Option D

Both bat species evolved from a common ancestor that could both see and hear

Option D

7
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Mammalian brains have different levels of convolution, referring to the number and depth of folds on the outside of the brain. Which of the following is true about the folds of the brain

Option A

Folds result from an evolutionary expansion of the cerebral cortex

Option B

Folds benefit the brain by providing more surface area to release heat

Option C

Folds protect the most important brain areas by placing them farther from the surface

Option D

Each fold corresponds to a single brain region, allowing for more brain regions

Option A

8
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Which of the following statements about mutations is false?

Option A

Mutations are changes in genes that happen between parents and offspring

Option B

Mutations help provide individual variance across species

Option C

All mutations are beneficial to an animal

Option D

Mutated genes can be passed on to future generations

Option C

9
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Which of the following is an example of sexual selection

Option A

Increased survival to reproductive age of giraffes with longer necks

Option B

A species of Birds evolving colorful feathers to appeal to mates

Option C

A species of lizard developing camouflage to avoid predators

Option D

A species of fish that evolves to lay thousands of eggs

Option E

All of the above

Option B

10
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If a chimpanzee was put into a human household and raised alongside a human child, the chimpanzee would likely struggle with which ability

Option A

Recognize and obey simple words and commands

Option B

Learn to produce many words in sign language

Option C

Count to 20

Option D

All of the above

Option C

11
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What type of mutation is mostly likely to contribute to an increase in brain size?

Option A

A mutation that increases the duration of synaptic pruning

Option B

A mutation that produced a new type of ion channel

Option C

A mutation that increases the number of cells that are born during neurogenesis

Option D

A mutation that leads to neurons with new patterns of dendrites

Option C

12
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In which phase of development do neurons grow their axons and dendrites guided by chemical signals?

Option A

Neurogenesis

Option B

Neuronal Differentiation

Option C

Synapse Rearrangement

Option D

Cell Migration

Option E

Synaptogenesis

Option F

Neuronal Cell Death

Option E

13
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Which of the following phases of development begins first?

Option A

Neuronal Differentiation

Option B

Synapse Rearrangement

Option C

Cell Migration

Option D

Synaptogenesis

Option E

Neuronal Cell Death

Option C

14
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A neuron's identity (location, shape, connections) is determined entirely by the neuron's genes

Option A

True

Option B

False

Option B

15
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Neurons are first 'born', and then move to the correct location in the brain

Option A

True

Option B

False

Option A

16
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Which of the following statements about synaptic rearrangement is false?

Option A

There is an overall loss of synapses in the later stages of development

Option B

Synapses are both eliminated and rearranged

Option C

Synaptic rearrangement is influenced by neural activity

Option D

Synaptic pruning is completed prior to birth

Option D

17
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How does the Na+ K+ pump (Sodium Potassium Pump) contribute to establishing the negative resting membrane potential of the cell?

Option A

It maintains a low concentration of sodium (Na+) inside the cell

Option B

It maintains a low concentration of potassium (K+) inside the cell

Option C

It turns on during an action potential

Option D

It allows potassium (K+) to flow freely across the membrane

Option E

All of the above

Option A

18
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Which of the following contributes to a neuron's negative resting membrane potential?

Option A

Voltage gated Sodium (Na+) channels

Option B

Large negatively charged proteins inside the cell

Option C

Potassium (K+) channels that are closed at rest

Option D

A high concentration of Chloride (Cl-) ions inside the cell

Option B

19
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Which of the following statements about the action potential is true

Option A

The shape of the action potential is controlled by synaptic inputs

Option B

Consecutive action potentials in a neuron will have different durations

Option C

The action potential is initiated at the axon hillock

Option D

The action potential is an example of chemical communication in the brain

Option E

All of the above

Option C

20
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What property determines the membrane potential that must be reached to trigger an action potential, often referred to as threshold?

Option A

The opening voltage of voltage gated potassium (K+) channels

Option B

The opening voltage of voltage gated sodium (Na+) channels

Option C

The closing voltage of the voltage gated sodium (Na+) channels

Option D

The number of Potassium (K+) channels open at rest

Option E

All of the above

Option B

21
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Which of the following causes changes to the membrane potential in phase 2?

Option A

Voltage-gated Sodium (Na+) channels

Option B

Ionotropic receptors

Option C

Voltage-gated Chloride (Cl-) channels

Option D

Resting sodium (Na+) channels

Option E

The relative refractory period

Option F

All of the above

Option B

22
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During which phase of the action potential are any Potassium (K+) channels open?

Option A

1

Option B

2

Option C

3

Option D

4

Option E

5

Option F

All

Option F

23
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How would the action potential change if someone had a severe sodium deficiency and there was low sodium (Na+) concentration both inside and outside the cell?

Option A

The action potential would look identical

Option B

The membrane potential would stay at the action potential peak around +40mV forever

Option C

The membrane potential would recover to resting potential in phase 4 much more slowly

Option D

The resting membrane potential would be more depolarized (closer to threshold)

Option E

The action potential peak in Phase 3 would be higher (More positive)

Option F

The action potential peak in Phase 3 would be lower (More negative)

Option F

24
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Which of the following is true about the absolute refractory period of a neuron

Option A

The absolute refractory period is caused by the inactivation of voltage-gated sodium channels

Option B

The absolute refractory period ensures that the action potential will move in one direction down non-myelinated axons

Option C

The absolute refractory period ensures that the action potential will move in one direction down myelinated axons

Option D

All of the above

Option D

25
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Put three types of electrical flow in order of speed (slowest to fastest)

Conduction down a myelinated axon

Conduction down an unmyelinated axon

Conduction of electrons down an electrical wire

Option A

Slowest 1, 2, 3 Fastest

Option B

Slowest 1, 3, 2 Fastest

Option C

Slowest 2, 3, 1 Fastest

Option D

Slowest 2, 1, 3 Fastest

Option E

Slowest 3, 1, 2 Fastest

Option F

Slowest 3, 2, 1 Fastest

Option D

26
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What are the cell body and dendrites 'missing' that prevents them from initiating action potentials?

Option A

Voltage gated Calcium (Ca2+) Channels

Option B

Voltage gated Sodium (Na+) channels

Option C

Potassium (K+) channels that are open at rest

Option D

Ligand-gated ion channels

Option B

27
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What aspect of neurotransmission is best described as chemical communication

Option A

The forces that establish the resting membrane potential

Option B

The generation of an action potential at an axon hillock

Option C

Saltatory conduction

Option D

The binding of neurotransmitters to a receptor

Option E

The influx of ions through a ligand-gated ion channel

Option D

28
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Which of the following contributes to a neuron's ability to fire distinct, identical action potentials close together, in rapid succession (every 5ms or so)

Option A

Inactivation of voltage-gated Na+ channels after 1ms

Option B

Voltage-gated K+ channels that close when the membrane potential is very low

Option C

Enzymes in the synaptic cleft that dissolve neurotransmitters

Option D

All of the above

Option E

None of the above

Option D

29
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Where are neurotransmitters before an action potential arrives at the axonal bouton?

Option A

Moving down the axon towards the axon terminal

Option B

Floating in the synaptic cleft

Option C

In vesicles near the presynaptic membrane

Option D

Attached to post-synaptic receptors

Option C

30
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During synaptic transmission, what type of ion channel opens immediately before vesicle fusion?

Option A

Ligand-gated ion channels

Option B

Voltage-gated Potassium (K+) channels

Option C

Voltage-gated Sodium (Na+) channels

Option D

Voltage-gated Calcium (Ca2+) Channels

Option D

31
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Ionotropic receptors impact the post-synaptic cell by

Option A

Binding sodium (Na+) ions in the synaptic cleft

Option B

Releasing a secondary messenger into the post-synaptic cell

Option C

Allowing neurotransmitters to flow through a channel

Option D

Causing vesicle fusion and neurotransmitter release

Option E

Allowing ions to flow through a channel

Option E

32
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Metabotropic receptors are more likely than ionotropic receptors to quickly change the membrane potential of a post-synaptic neuron

Option A

True

Option B

False

Option B

33
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A drug that binds to ionotropic chloride (Cl-) receptors and causes them to be permanently open would...

Option A

Increase the number of action potentials fired in the brain

Option B

Decrease the number of action potentials fired in the brain

Option C

Have no effect on the number of action potentials fired in the brain

Option B

34
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If Neuron 1 synapses onto Neuron 2, and Neuron 1 releases glutamate into the synaptic cleft, then Neuron 2 will respond by

Option A

Rapidly depolarizing to a positive membrane potential

Option B

Becoming more likely to trigger an action potential.

Option C

Becoming less likely to trigger an action potential.

Option D

Releasing GABA.

Option A

35
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Each neuron typically only releases one type of neurotransmitter

Option A

True

Option B

False

Option A

36
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Each neuron typically only receives input from one type of neurotransmitter

Option A

True

Option B

False

Option B

37
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What component of a neuron uses the most energy, corresponding to over 5% of your entire body's energy intake?

Option A

Ionotropic receptors

Option B

Metabotropic receptors

Option C

The sodium-potassium pump

Option D

The semipermeable membrane

Option E

Voltage-gated ion channels

Option F

The axon hillock

Option C

38
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You are a neurologist treating a patient. The patient has been accidentally poisoned by a neurotoxin. Using fancy science techniques, you can determine that the patient's neurons are firing more action potentials than normal, and are close to triggering a seizure. You have antidotes to four neurotoxins available. Which one will you administer to the patient?

Option A

Antidote to conotoxin. Conotoxin blocks voltage-gated Calcium (Ca++) channels

Option B

Antidote to kynurenic acid (KA). KA blocks ionotropic receptors that bind glutamate

Option C

Antidote to tetrodotoxin (TTX). TTX blocks voltage-gated Sodium (Na+) channels

Option D

Antidote to tetanus toxin. Tetanus toxin prevents vesicle fusion in neurons that release GABA

How many neurons are in the human brain?

Option A

About 60 Thousand

Option B

About 60 Million

Option C

About 60 Billion

Option D

About 60 Trillion

39
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Which of the following sense are an example of mechanical?

A hearing

B vison

C taste

D smell

A

40
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What makes the chemical sense different from other sensory systems?

A Chemical sense operate using rods and cones

B Chemical senses exists primarily to sense concentrations of chemicals within our bodies

C Chemicals senses are the only sense that communicate to other neurons using neurotransmitters

D Chemical sense have special receptors that bind to chemical molecules n the environment

D

41
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We only perceive a small amount of the overall information our bodies sense

A True

B False

A

42
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Which of the following is not an example of sensory transduction?

A Rods and Cones converting light into neural signals

B Acetylcholine binding to muscle fibers

C Olfactory receptors binding to odorants

D Taste buds sensing chemicals in food

B

43
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What is a bistable perception?

A When a stimulus involves two different sensory modalities at the same time

B When the same sensory stimulus can be perceived in multiple ways by different people

C When the same sensory stimulus can be perceived in multiple ways by the same person

D Any situation where perception and sensation do not match

C

44
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How does the PEIZO convert physical touch into an electrical signal?

A A change in temperature changes the shape of an ion channel allowing it to open

B Physical force momentarily punctures the cell membrane allow ions to flow in

C Physical force stretches the cell membrane which pulls ion channel open

D Neurotransmitters bind to the PIZO receptor, triggering action potential

C

45
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If we were to record electrical activity for a single hair cell, what information would we be able to determine?

A location of a visual stimulus on the retina

B The intensity of a painful stimulus on the arm

C the duration of an auditory stimulus with a specific pitch

D the source of a whisker stimulus

E the onset time of a painful stimulus

C

46
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Where in the nervous system do sensory features undergo binding across different sensory modalities to create perception?

A Labeled lines

B Cerebral cortex

C Peripheral receptors

D Spinal cord

B

47
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We can often guess the receptive field of a neuron n the somatosensory cortex by its location in the somatosensory cortex

A true

B false

A

48
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Which of the following statements about receptive fields is FALSE?

A a neurons receptive field is defined by the location on the body or in physical space to which a neuron responds

B peripheral receptor cells and neurons in the brain both can have receptive fields

C receptive fields provide scientists with insight into the function of a brain area

D all of the above are true

A

49
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If a person hears a short beep, in what order will the neural activity relating to the beep arrive in the following areas

A thalamus, hair cell, secondary auditory cortex, primary auditory cortex

B hair cell, primary auditory cortex, thalamus, secondary auditory cortex

C primary auditory cortex, hair cell, secondary auditory cortex, thalamus

D hair cell, thalamus, primary auditory cortex, secondary auditory cortex

E secondary auditory cortex, primary auditory cortex, hair cell, thalamus

D

50
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some neuron in the visual system have basic receptive fields, like dots in our visual field. some neurons have complex receptive fields that represent more abstract features like swirls or texture. which of the following areas in the visual system will contain neurons with the most complex receptive fields?

A V1

B Thalamus

C Retina

D V2

D

51
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Which neurons in the visual system have receptive fields that correspond to dots of light at a specific position of the retina?

A V2 neurons

B V1 Simple cells

C V1 Complex cells

D V4 neurons

E Retinal Ganglion Cells

E

52
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What is the difference between a movement and a motor plan?

A a movement refers to the relocation of a single body part, while motor plan refers to a series of muscle contractions to execute a movement

B motor plan is the conscious intent to generate a behavior, whereas a movement is the behavior itself

C motor plan consists of a series of movements in a sequence

D a movement and motor plan is the same thing

A

53
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the neuromuscular junction is called the final synapse because it enable movement, the overall output of the nervous system

A true

B false

A

54
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Which of the following is most likely yo occur following an injury to the pyramidal motor system

A jerky or disjointed movements

B partial or complete inability to execute movements

C generating too many movements

D difficulty executing movements that are guided by external stimuli

B

55
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Which of the following deficits is most likely to occur following an injury to the cerebellum?

A jerky or disjointed movements

B partial or complete inability to execute movements

C generating too many movements

D difficulty executing movements that are guided by external stimuli

A

56
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which of the following statements about neurons in the primary motor cortex is false?

A some primary motor cortex neurons correspond to the muscles that will be controlled during a movement

B most primary motor cortex refelect the intended direction of movement

C a single primary motor cortex neuron can reliably tell us the direction of all movements

D some primary cortex neurons project directly to the brainstem to drive movement

C

57
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when an adult practices and improves at motor skill over a long period of time, which of the following is likely to be observed

A Increase of the size of motor regions corresponding to the body parts involved in the movement

B Motor cortex neurons will develop a consistent and organized pattern of firing action potentials during the movement

C New synapses will be formed in the motor region corresponding to the body parts involved in the movement

D all of the above

D

58
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Integrating sensory feedback and motor control to generate precise movement patterns is an easy task for AI and robotic systems

A true

B false

B

59
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Which of the following is NOT and example of a control system

A Automated lights that change their brightness to keep the overall light level the same during the day and night

B A thermostat that controls a hearer to maintain a desired temperature

C The brain moving the body towards a heat source to keep warm

D All of them

D

60
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which of the following is NOT an example of active sensation

A Bats using echolocation to catch prey

B An owl rotating its ears to detect the location of a sound

C Moving eye to scan a visual scene

D Listening to music while running

E All are active sensation

D

61
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An efference copy refers to the motor plan that converts a movement goal into specific set of instructions for muscle fiber

A true

B false

B

62
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What is the benefit of using motor information to make predications about the sensory outcome of our actions ?

A it helps us detect errors which can inform us about incorrect assumptions about the environment

B it helps us detect errors so that we can update or behaviors to achieve a desired goal

C is helps reduce the amount of raw sensory information that our brain mist process

D all of the above

D

63
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learning can improvement our behavioral potential without the improvement being tested

A true

B false

A

64
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which of the following statement about patient HM is true

A patient HM has portions of his cerebellum removed to improve his seizures

B patient HM struggled to learn new motor skills even after practice

C patient HM has difficulty recalling events about his early childhood

D patient HM has difficulty recalling events about his life that occurred in the year prior to surgery

E all of the above

D

65
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which of the following lesson did psychologist learn from patient HM?

A the brain areas that hold long term memories ands the brain areas that formed long term memories must be different

B the brain areas that hold long term memories and the brain areas that form long term memories must be the same

C the hippocampus must be important for all for of long term memory

D the hippocampus must be important for short and log term memory

A

66
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which of the following statements about declarative memory is false?

A declarative memory can be tested in animals

B recalling declarative memories always require the hippocampus

C storage of declarative memories requires the interaction between the hippocampus and cortical areas

D declarative memories are stored for long time period in the cerebral cortex

B

67
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distress or anxiety brought on by the sight of a needle is an example of what type pf memory?

A skill learning

B priming

C sensory learning

D operant conditioning

E classical conditioning

E

68
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what is the shortest form of memory corresponding to brief persistent activity in the sensory cortex area

A working memory

B short term memory

C sensory buffers

D priming

E encoding

C

69
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which of the following statements about memory stage is true

A memories are most fragile and susceptible to alteration while the are in long term memory

B encoding is the process of transducing information form our sensory receptors into sensory buffers

C working memory is a specific subtype of long term memory

D memories can be repeatedly retrieved and reconsolidated

D

70
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"neurons that fire together wire together" describes the tendency for neurons that are active at the same time to strengthen the excitatory synapses connecting them

A true

B false

A

71
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which of the following are requires for NMDA receptors to allow ions to flow through

A glutamate release from the pre-synaptic cell

B binding of glutamate to NMDA receptors

C strong depolarization in the post - synaptic cell

D magnesium (Mg++) must leave the pore of the NMDA receptor

E all of the above

F all except A

G all except D

E

72
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where are NMDA receptors located

A in the axon

B in the presynaptic terminal

C in the post synaptic terminal

D at the axon-initial segment

E in vesicles

C

73
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LTP and LTD occur during development and in adults

A true

B false

A

74
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Which of the following occur when a motor neuron with a large innervation ratio fires a single action potential?

Option A

A single muscle fiber relaxes

Option B

A single muscle fiber contracts

Option C

Many muscle fibers relax

Option D

Many muscle fibers contract

Option E

It drives neurons in the brain stem to initiate a movement

Option D

75
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Which of the following occur during muscle fiber contractions?

Option A

Depolarization occurs throughout the muscle fiber

Option B

Calcium (Ca2+) concentration increases in the muscle fiber

Option C

Filaments are pulled together by the conformation change of proteins

Option D

All of the above

Option D

76
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Which of the following brain areas is most likely to be active (firing action potentials) first during a movement?

Option A

Motor neurons

Option B

Muscle fibers

Option C

Primary motor cortex

Option D

Non-primary motor cortex (Premotor Cortex)

Option D

77
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The desire to perform well at your job so that you will have a positive relationship with your boss and get a raise is an example of what type of memory?

Option A

Skill learning

Option B

Priming

Option C

Sensory learning

Option D

Operant conditioning

Option E

Classical conditioning

Option D

78
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Which of the following scenarios is most likely to prevent LTP from occurring?

Hint: Do not worry about the biological plausibility of the scenario, and just focus on the impact on synaptic plasticity

Option A

A drug is introduced to the brain that specifically opens all AMPA receptors

Option B

A drug is introduced to the brain that specifically opens all NMDA receptors

Option C

Severely reduced calcium (Ca2+) in the brain due to malnutrition

Option D

Severely reduced magnesium (Mg2+) in the brain due to malnutrition

Option C

79
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Which of the following is not a core characteristic of human language?

Option A

Discreteness

Option B

Grammar

Option C

Productivity

Option D

Fluency

Option D

80
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Which of the following is an example of 'displacement'?

Option A

A bee performing a dance to communicate the location of nectar outside the hive

Option B

A dog barking louder when it sees a stranger approaching

Option C

A parrot mimicking phrases it hears from its owner

Option D

Pointing at objects to draw your pet's attention to them

Option E

A child combining multiple words to describe an object in detail for the first time

Option A

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The same sound can be a phoneme for one person, but not for another person.

True

False

True

82
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Which of the following statements about animal communication is true?

Option A

No form of animal communication meets any of the criteria for human language

Option B

With enough teaching and effort, some primates can master human languages

Option C

Animals do not have the capacity for human language because they do not have sufficiently evolved vocal chords

Option D

Some animals display one or more traits of human language including discreteness and cultural transmission

Option D

83
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Which of the following steps in language-learning generally occurs first during human development?

Option A

Use of two word questions

Option B

Differentiation of cries for different situations

Option C

Vocal play like gurgling and babbling

Option D

Combining consonants and vowels to generate simple words

Option B

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What does the critical period hypothesis of language claim?

Option A

If children are not exposed to a language early in life, they may never fully acquire it

Option B

Language learning is easier if it begins after other cognitive systems have matured

Option C

If a child has not spoken their first words by 18 months of age, they are unlikely to ever speak fluently

Option D

Perceptual narrowing must occur before 6-8 years of age or it will not happen at all

Option A

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What did the creation of Nicaraguan Sign Language teach us about language?

Option A

Language requires formal instruction to emerge

Option B

Sign languages are simpler to learn and lack grammar compared to spoken languages

Option C

Children have a natural inclination to generate language even when a language is not taught

Option D

Environmental enrichment is critical for the development of language during critical periods

Option C

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A split-brain individual is shown a key to their left eye and a spoon to their right eye. If the individual was asked to report what object(s) they saw, how would they respond verbally?

Option A

Key

Option B

Spoon

Option C

No response

Option D

Key and Spoon

Spoon

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What would be the primary challenge of understanding speech produced by an individual with Wernicke's aphasia?

Option A

They would produce words very slowly and with substantial effort

Option B

They would produce no words

Option C

They would speak at a normal pace but with a very limited vocabulary

Option D

They would speak at a normal pace but without a logical order to their words

Option D

88
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Which of the following most accurately describes the function of Broca's area in the motor theory of language?

Option A

Broca's area is involved primarily in speech production

Option B

Broca's area is involved in speech comprehension

Option C

Broca's area is involved in both speech comprehension and production

Option D

Broca's area controls motor output but is not specific to language

Option C

89
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Most people experience a very complex variety of emotions. Which of the following describes why we can experience such a wide range of emotions from a small set of building blocks?

Option A

Each emotion can vary in intensity and can occur as combinations of emotions

Option B

As humans grow older, additional core emotions are added as our experiences diversify

Option C

Experiments studying emotion cannot take into account social context

Option D

Each core emotion can be broken down into many sub-categories

Option A

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Why do most scientists believe that emotions have an evolved, physiological basis?

Option A

Physical displays of emotion like facial expressions are often consistent across cultures

Option B

Each emotion has a distinct and unique pattern of autonomic nervous system changes

Option C

Because there is no evidence that animals display signs of emotion that is similar to humans

Option D

All of the above

Option A

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Physical changes in our body that occur during emotions are produced by the somatic nervous system

True

False

False

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Which of the following supports the hypothesis that emotions have a learned and social component?

Option A

Faces of disgust to unpleasant odors are made more frequently when others are present

Option B

Bowlers who make a good shot usually only smile once they have turned around

Option C

Injecting epinephrine (adrenaline) into test subjects can lead to different emotional experiences based on the behavior of people around them

Option D

All of the above

Option D

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Which theory of brain-body interactions during emotional processing states that physiological changes in our body produce our experience of emotions?

Option A

The Amygdala Theory

Option B

James-Lange Theory

Option C

The Dopamine Theory

Option D

Traditional folk psychology

Option E

Cannon-Bard Theory

Option B

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Which of the following statements best describes our current understanding of how emotions interact between the brain and the body?

Option A

Physiological changes in our bodies produce our experience of emotions

Option B

Our emotional experiences produce physiological changes in our bodies

Option C

Emotional experiences produce both perception and physiological changes in our bodies

Option D

Sensory input causes changes in emotional experience and physiological changes in our bodies in parallel

Option D

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Which of the following brain areas is believed to be most directly responsible for generating experiences of emotion such as fear?

Option A

The auditory cortex

Option B

The amygdala

Option C

The hypothalamus

Option D

The hippocampus

Option B

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The discovery that the syphilis bacterial infection causes paralytic dementia was important because it showed that mental disorders could have an identifiable medical cause.

True

False

True

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Which of the following is not a component of the DSM-5's definition of a mental disorder?

Option A

The presence of behavioral or psychological symptoms

Option B

There is a measurable change in physiological brain function

Option C

Behavioral or psychological symptoms cause distress in daily life

Option D

The symptoms are not a culturally expected response to common stressors

Option E

The symptoms are not defined entirely by deviance from social norms

Option B

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When did Eleanor Longden's symptoms of schizophrenia first emerge?

Option A

In early childhood

Option B

In high school

Option C

At the start of university

Option D

In her 30s

Option C

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Which of the following is an example of a 'positive symptom' of schizophrenia?

Option A

Receiving additional attention from doctors and psychologists

Option B

Memory problems

Option C

Reduced facial expression

Option D

Stigmatized treatment by social relations

Option E

Auditory hallucinations

Option E

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Schizophrenia symptoms exist on a continuum and appear differently across individuals.

True

False

True