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Last updated 9:28 PM on 4/15/26
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44 Terms

1
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Peristalsis is part of which digestive process?

a. Absorption

b. Ingestion

c. Propulsion

d. Chemical digestion

c. Propulsion

2
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Simple columnar epithelium is found in which

histological layer of the alimentary canal?

a. Submucosa

b. Muscularis

c. Serosa

d. Mucosa

d. Mucosa

3
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The esophageal hiatus is found on this organ.

a. Esophagus

b. Stomach

c. Diaphragm

d. Pharynx

c. Diaphragm

4
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Saliva is composed mainly of __________ .

a. water

b. amylase

c. lingual lipase

d. mucin

a. water

5
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Which of the following is NOT an enzyme

produced by the pancreas?

a. Amylase

b. Lipase

c. Nuclease

d. Glucagonase

d. Glucagonase

amylase is made by the pancreas anddd salivary glands to assist in the breakdown of carbs

6
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This hormone triggers the release of enzyme-rich

pancreatic juice.

a. CCK

b. Secretin

c. Gastrin

d. Bile

a. CCK

7
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what hormone triggers the release of bicarbonate-rich pancreatic juice?

Secretin

8
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what hormone triggers the release of HCl and pepsinogen in the stomach?

9
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The functions of the large intestine include all of

the following EXCEPT __________ .

a. elimination of waste

b. absorption of water and electrolytes

c. absorption of nutrients

d. absorption of vitamins produced by bacteria

c. absorption of nutrients

10
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Where does chemical digestion of lipids begin?

a. Small intestine

b. Stomach

c. Gallbladder

d. Mouth

d. Mouth

lingual lipase breaks down triglycerides into FAs in the mouth

11
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The majority of _________ occurs in the mouth,

stomach, and small intestine.

a) ingestion

b) chemical digestion

c) mechanical digestion

d) absorption

c) mechanical digestion

majority of chemical digestion occurs in the SI

12
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Most teeth are primarily composed of _________.

a) enamel

b) pulp

c) dentin

d) cementum

enamel is the outer covering

13
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_______ involves over 22 muscle groups and includes the

buccal phase and the pharyngeal-esophageal phase.

a) Mastication

b) Bolus formation

c) Deglutition

d) Peristalsis

c) Deglutition = swallowing

  • Buccal Phase: A voluntary stage where the tongue pushes the bolus toward the oropharynx.

  • Pharyngeal-Esophageal Phase: An involuntary stage where food moves through the pharynx and into the esophagus, primarily controlled by the autonomic nervous system.

14
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Digestion of which of the following might be inhibited if

a patient chronically consumes an antacid?

a) Lipid

b) Carbohydrate

c) Sugar

d) Protein

d) Protein

pepsin, which is responsible for the initial breakdown of proteins in the stomach, requires a highly acidic environment (low pH) to function effectively.

15
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A meal high in fat would _______.

a) stimulate rapid gastric emptying

b) stimulate the intensity of the stomach’s peristaltic

waves

c) increase gastrin secretion

d) inhibit gastric emptying

d) inhibit gastric emptying

When fats enter the duodenum, cholecystokinin (CCK) and gastric inhibitory peptide (GIP) released

These hormones inhibit the stomach's peristaltic contractions and constrict the pyloric sphincter

slowing down the passage of food to ensure the small intestine has enough time to properly emulsify and digest the lipids

16
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_______ macrophages are located in the liver.

a) Intrapeithelial

b) Langerhan

c) Stellate

d) Hepatocyte

c) Stellate

filter and detox blood

17
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The gallbladder _______ bile by _______ water and

ions.

a) concentrates; absorbing

b) stores; preventing absorption of

c) dilutes; secreting

d) modifies; secreting

a) concentrates; absorbing

actively absorbs water to concentrate bile

18
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You would expect blood levels of _______ to be highest

when the pH of stomach chyme entering the duodenum

is at its lowest.

a) secretin

b) Cl

c) gastrin

d) H

a) secretin

Low pH (high acidity) triggers S cells in the duodenum to release secretin, which stimulates the pancreas to release bicarbonate to neutralize the acid

19
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How do most chylomicrons enter the

lymphatic system?

a. through the left and right subclavian veins

b. through lacteals

c. through the thoracic duct

d. through the hepatic portal system

b. through lacteals

chylomicrons: large lipoprotein particles made after digestion of fats

too big to go through lymph caps

20
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In which region(s) of the digestive tract does

mechanical processing occur?

a. in the mouth, by teeth and the tongue

b. in the stomach, by churning

c. in the small intestine, by peristalsis

d. both A and B

d. both A and B

21
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Nephrons are found mostly in the __________ .

a. renal medulla

b. renal cortex

c. renal capsule

d. renal sinus

b. renal cortex

22
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What is the NFP if HPGC is 60 mm Hg, OPGC is

35 mm Hg, and HPCS is 15 mm Hg?

a. 10 mm Hg

b. 25 mm Hg

c. 45 mm Hg

d. 110 mm Hg

a. 10 mm Hg

23
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how is NFP calculated?

NFP = HPGC − (OPGC + HPCS)

24
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what do macula densa cells sense?

salt sensors (NaCl sensors) to regulate blood pressure and filtration

25
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When glucose spills over into the urine, it has __________.

a. been secreted

b. been filtered and secreted

c. exceeded its transport maximum

d. been completely cleared from the blood

c. exceeded its transport maximum

glucose is filtered from the blood into the kidney tubules and then completely reabsorbed back into the bloodstream by specific carrier proteins in the PCT

However, these carrier proteins have a limited capacity known as the transport maximum

when blood glucose levels are abnormally high, the amount of glucose filtered into the tubules exceeds the capacity of these transporters to reabsorb it.

excess glucose is not reabsorbed and "spills over" to be excreted in the urine

26
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The collecting ducts are _____ to water when the

hormone _____ is present.

a. permeable; ADH

b. permeable; aldosterone

c. impermeable; ADH

d. impermeable; aldosterone

a. permeable; ADH

letting CTs be permeable to water allows water to flow out and return to the blood stream, thus hydrating the body

27
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Which of the following would be an abnormal pH

for urine?

a. 5.0

b. 6.0

c. 8.0

d. 11.0

d. 11.0

normal urine pH is 4.5 and 8.0

28
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What fraction of the cardiac output is delivered to the

kidneys each minute?

a) 1/1000

b) 1/2

c) 1/4

d) 3/4

c) 1/4

29
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The vasa recta are associated with which structures in

the kidney?

a) Glomeruli

b) Juxtamedullary nephrons

c) Afferent arterioles

d) Cortical nephrons

b) Juxtamedullary nephrons

  • vasa recta are straight capillary networks that arise from the efferent arterioles of juxtamedullary nephrons

  • critical role in the countercurrent exchange system

    • helps maintain the osmotic gradient in the medulla necessary for concentrating urine

30
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Why do high levels of potassium stimulate aldosterone

secretion?

a) Aldosterone stimulates potassium secretion at

potassium-specific pumps.

b) Aldosterone stimulates the sodium-potassium

pump to reabsorb sodium while simultaneously

secreting potassium.

c) Aldosterone stimulates the sodium-potassium pump

to secrete sodium while simultaneously reabsorbing

potassium.

d) High levels of potassium accompany high levels of

sodium.

b) Aldosterone stimulates the sodium-potassium

pump to reabsorb sodium while simultaneously

secreting potassium.

  • Sodium Reabsorption: Sodium moved from tubule to blood

  • Potassium Secretion: Potassium moved from blood into the tubule and secreted urine

31
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Which of the following processes in urine formation is

important for regulating blood pH?

a) Secretion

b) Reabsorption

c) Filtration

d) Countercurrent multiplication

a) Secretion

kidneys regulate blood pH by selectively secreting H+ from the peritubular capillaries into the renal tubules, lowering blood pH

32
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Which of the following constitutes the largest solute

component of urine?

a) Sodium

b) Potassium

c) Urea

d) Creatine

c) Urea

33
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Urine from a person with uncontrolled diabetes mellitus

has a(n) _______ due to the presence of _______.

a) brown color; bile pigments

b) fruity odor; acetone

c) acidic pH; protein

d) high specific gravity; sodium chloride

b) fruity odor; acetone

  • acetone/ketone bodies

  • when the body, unable to use glucose for energy due to lack of insulin, breaks down fat instead, producing acetone as a byproduct

34
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Which of the following is not a layer of the ureter?

a) Muscularis

b) Mucosa

c) Adventitia

d) Endothelium

d) Endothelium

  • Adventitia (Outer Layer): A supportive layer of fibroelastic connective tissue containing blood vessels, lymphatics, and nerves

35
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The process of voiding the bladder is called _______.

a) micturition

b) the urethral reflex

c) detrusor activation

d) incontinence

a) micturition

36
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what does filtration mean?

water and solute taken from blood and put into glomerulus/filtrate

37
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what does reabsorption mean?

water and solute taken from glomerulus/filtrate and put back into the blood

38
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what does secretion mean?

removal of specific metabolic wastes/ions from the blood into the glomerulus

39
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what is tubular reabsorption?

moving solutes from filtrate back into the peritubular capillaries/blood

40
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what is tubular secretion?

moving solute from blood in the peritubular capillaries into the tubules

(opposite of reabsorption)

41
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What part of the nephron is involved with

obligatory water, ion, and organic nutrient

reabsorption?

a. PCT

b. DCT

c. glomerular capillaries

d. nephron loop

a. PCT

  • Reabsorption in this segment is termed "obligatory" because it occurs regardless of the body's hydration state or hormonal levels

  • driven largely by the active transport of sodium and water following

42
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What effect does renin have on the

glomerular filtration rate (GFR)?

a. It will decrease the GFR and vasoconstrict the

efferent arteriole.

b. It will increase the GFR and vasoconstrict

the efferent arteriole.

c. It will raise the GFR and vasoconstrict the

afferent arteriole.

d. None of the above are correct.

b. It will increase the GFR and vasoconstrict

the efferent arteriole.

  • angiotensin II targets the efferent arteriole

  • blood is "backed up" within the glomerular capillaries

  • increases the hydrostatic pressure

  • This higher pressure forces more fluid through the filtration membrane

  • thereby increasing GFR

43
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Mary has had a urinalysis that indicates a

high level of bilirubin. What condition may

she have?

a. liver disease

b. anorexia

c. ketonuria

d. renal infection

a. liver disease

  • Bilirubin is a byproduct of RBC breakdown thats usually processed by the liver and excreted in bile

  • liver damage can cause bilirubin to build up in the blood and spill over into the urine

44
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What is the role of the vasa recta in the

urinary system?

a. increasing specific gravity of urine

b. increasing the osmotic concentration of urine

c. returning water and solutes to general

circulation

d. cleansing blood before it reenters systemic

circulation

c. returning water and solutes to general

circulation