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The most common source of hospital acquired infections that is responsible 70-80% of complicated UTI’s is caused by which medical device?
urinary catheters
surgical scalpels
stents
hypodermic needles
urinary catheters
Which enteric bacteria causes 70-95% of uncomplicated UTIs?
UPEC
Proteus mirabilis
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Klebsiella pneumoniae
UPEC
Which bacteria is the most common cause of Gram-positive uncomplicated UTIs?
Staphylococcus aureus
Staphylococcus saprophyticus
Enterococcus faecalis
Group B streptococcus
Staphylococcus saprophyticus
Which fungal genus and species is the most common cause fungal UTIs?
Cryptosporidium sp.
Tinea corporis
Candida albicans
Tinea pedis
Candida albicans
The etiological agent of genital herpes is _______________.
HSV-2
cytomegalovirus
Staphylococcus aureus
varicella-zoster
HSV-2
What is the most dangerous form of neonatal herpes?
central nervous system effects
disseminated infection
skin, eyes, and mouth (SEM) manifestations
disseminated infection
What infection exhibits ulcers that are referred to as "dewdrops on rose petals", describing the look of the clear pustule above a reddened base?
genital herpes
genital warts
lymphogranuloma venereum
chancroid
genital herpes
The most common STI in the world that causes genital warts and cervical cancer is caused by ______________.
cytomegalovirus
HIV
HSV-2
HPV
HPV
What percentage of cervical cancers are caused by HPV?
90%
65%
50%
100%
90%
What test is a cheap, easy, and noninvasive method for detecting HPV infections as well as precancerous and cancerous cervical cells?
tourniquet test
direct ELISA
PCR
PAP smear
PAP smear
Identify the manifestation of HPV in this image.
ulcer
chancre
anal warts
genital warts
genital warts
True or False? Vaginitis is diagnosed by Amsel’s criteria.
True
False
False
Which bacterium has two main biovars called trachoma and lymphogranuloma venereum?
Chlamydia trachomatis
Treponema pallidum
Trichomonas vaginalis
Leptospira interrogans
Chlamydia trachomatis
Which biovar of Chlamydia trachomatis causes primary stage, painless ulcers?
UPEC
lymphogranuloma venereum
trachoma
all answers are correct
lymphogranuloma venereum
What infection is many times asymptomatic, but in certain cases cause men to have dysuria and a whitish urethral discharge?
gonorrhea
lymphogranuloma venereum
syphilis
chancroid
gonorrhea
Which bacterium is the etiological agent of PID and ophthalmia neonatorum?
Neisseria gonorrhoeae
Haemophilus ducreyi
Leptospira interrogans
Proteus mirabilis
Neisseria gonorrhoeae
Which bacterium is the etiological agent of syphilis?
Treponema pallidum
Chlamydia trachomatis
Proteus mirabilis
Leptospira interrogans
Treponema pallidum
Which stage of syphilis is characterized by a chancre appearing at the initial infection site, where the spirochete invades the new host’s tissues and begins to multiply?
secondary stage
quaternary stage
tertiary stage
primary stage
primary stage
Which stage of syphilis usually involves a disseminated rash, which may appear on the skin or on mucous membranes in the mouth, vagina, or anus?
secondary syphilis
quaternary syphilis
tertiary syphilis
primary syphilis
secondary syphilis
Which stage of syphilis can be fatal? This stage causes lesions on the skin and bones, heart damage, and neurological symptoms.
quaternary syphilis
tertiary syphilis
secondary syphilis
primary syphilis
tertiary syphilis
Painful genital ulcers caused by Haemophilus ducreyi are called __________.
genital warts
disseminated ulcers
pustules
chancres
chancres
Which infections displays painful lesions called chancres?
gonorrhea
secondary syphilis
lymphogranuloma venereum
chancroid
chancroid
Infection with which bacterium is one of the most important cofactors in the transmission of HIV?
Haemophilus ducreyi
UPEC
Proteus mirabilis
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Haemophilus ducreyi
Candida albicans is part of normal vaginal microbiota, but it can cause infections if the normal microbiota is changed. Which of the following is a reason for changes in the vaginal microbiota that can result in vulvovaginal candidiasis?
antibiotic therapy
all of the answers are correct
increased estrogen
increased vaginal pH
all of the answers are correct
What is the common name of vulvovaginitis candidiasis?
leptospirosis
ringworm
Baker’s infection
yeast infection
yeast infection
Which vaginal infection is characterized by a “cottage cheese” discharge?
vulvovaginal candidiasis
trichomoniasis
vaginosis
gonorrhea
vulvovaginal candidiasis
What fungal vaginal infection is characterized by this type of discharge?
gonorrhea
trichomoniasis
chancroid
vulvovaginal candidiasis
vulvovaginal candidiasis
What type of microbe causes trichomoniasis?
bacteria
virus
fungi
protist parasite
protist parasite
Diagnosis of which infection is done by performing a wet mount observation of vaginal discharge?
vulvovaginal candidiasis
trichomoniasis
chancroid
chlamydia
trichomoniasis
Which of the following is a way that and individual could contract an STD?
all answers stated are ways that someone could contract an STD
having multiple sex partners
having sexual intercourse without using a condom
sharing needles for tattoos or piercings
all answers stated are ways that someone could contract an STD
Herpes is caused by the viruses, HSV-1 and HSV-2. HSV-1 usually causes ________ herpes, while HSV-2 usually causes _________ herpes.
oral; genital
fallopian; epidydimal
cervical; esophageal
urethral; cervical
oral; genital
Which of the following microbes that cause reproductive diseases can typically be prevented by a vaccination that is administered to individuals who are 26 and under, and who don’t have the disease?
HSV-2
HIV
HPV
HSV-1
HPV
An infection with Chlamydia is easily spread, because ________.
it is a chronic disease
the bacterial has a capsule to avoid phagocytosis
the virus has a long latent period
it is usually asymptomatic
it is usually asymptomatic
The tertiary stage of syphilis can affect what part of the body?
nerves
heart
brain
all the stated body parts can be affected by tertiary syphilis
all the stated body parts can be affected by tertiary syphilis
__________ drug resistance occurs as a result of genetic mutations or gaining resistance genes via horizontal gene transfer.
Acquired
Intrinsic
Unnatural
Natural
Acquired
Another name for the disk diffusion agar test or antimicrobial susceptibility test is the ___________.
AMES test
Voges-Proskauer test
Kirby-Bauer test
drug resistance test
Kirby-Bauer test
The clear area surrounding an antibiotic-infused filter paper disk is called ___________.
zone of inhibition
plaque
inhibition area
bacterial-free zone
zone of inhibition
The type of agar used for the antimicrobial susceptibility test is ___________.
Thayer-Martin agar
Mueller-Hinton
TSA
Lowenstein-Jensen agar
Mueller-Hinton
When performing an antimicrobial susceptibility test, why is it necessary to swab the agar four times in different directions?
the inoculation technique allows for isolated colonies to grow
the inoculation technique ensures complete microbial growth across the plate
the inoculation technique results in four distinct streaks where four separate antimicrobial drugs can be tested
without swabbing the plate several times, microbial growth is unlikely
the inoculation technique ensures complete microbial growth across the plate
To determine a test microbe’s drug susceptibility, which measurement should be compared with the CLSI table values?
the area of the zone of inhibition
the circumference of the zone of inhibition
the radius of the zone of inhibition
the diameter of the zone of inhibition
the diameter of the zone of inhibition
You perform an antimicrobial susceptibility test on Pseudomonas aeruginosa, a multidrug-resistant Gram-negative bacterium. The zone diameter measurements for the drugs ampicillin and polymyxin are both 13mm. Given the zone diameter measurements, what is the susceptibility of P. aeruginosa to ampicillin (AMP) and polymyxin (PM)?
CLSI Values for PM: resistant ≤11mm, intermediate none, susceptible ≥12mm
CLSI Values for AMP: resistant ≤13mm, intermediate 14-16mm, susceptible ≥17mm
the bacterium is resistant to both polymyxin and ampicillin
the bacterium is susceptible to polymyxin and resistant to ampicillin
the bacterium is susceptible to both polymyxin and ampicillin
the bacterium is resistant to polymyxin and susceptible to ampicillin
the bacterium is susceptible to polymyxin and resistant to ampicillin
You are swabbing an agar plate for antimicrobial susceptibility testing. What step should occur immediately after uncapping the broth culture tube?
uncap the agar plate
dip the sterile cotton swab into the broth
drag the cotton swab alongside the wall of the tube
flame sterilize the tube lip
flame sterilize the tube lip
You are preparing an agar plate to perform an antimicrobial susceptibility test. How should you first inoculate your plate?
swab in a random zig-zag pattern
swab side-to-side in one quadrant of the plate
swab back-and-forth and top-to-bottom in a tight pattern over the entire agar surface
swab to isolate colonies
swab back-and-forth and top-to-bottom in a tight pattern over the entire agar surface
You are performing an antimicrobial susceptibility test. What step should occur immediately after placing the antimicrobial drug disk on the test plate?
dip forceps in ethanol
use forceps to pick up and securely place the next antimicrobial drug disk on the plate
flame-sterilize the forceps by passing them quickly through the Bunsen burner flame, burning off all alcohol in the process
gently tap the disk with forceps
gently tap the disk with forceps
These are the results of an Escherichia coli antimicrobial susceptibility test. Using the CLSI table, analyze the effect of ciprofloxacin (CIP) on E. coli.
resistant
susceptible
intermediate
intermediate
These are the results of an Escherichia coli antimicrobial susceptibility test. Using the CLSI table, analyze the effect of erythromycin (E) on E. coli.
intermediate
susceptible
resistant
resistant
These are the results of an Escherichia coli antimicrobial susceptibility test. Using the CLSI table, analyze the effect of chloramphenicol (C) on E. coli.
intermediate
resistant
susceptible
susceptible
These are the results of a Staphylococcus aureus antimicrobial susceptibility test. Using the CLSI table, analyze the effect of vancomycin (VA) on S. aureus.
susceptible
resistant
intermediate
resistant
These are the results of a Staphylococcus aureus antimicrobial susceptibility test. Using the CLSI table, analyze the effect of erythromycin (E) on S. aureus.
resistant
susceptible
intermediate
resistant
These are the results of a Staphylococcus aureus antimicrobial susceptibility test. Using the CLSI table, analyze the effect of ciprofloxacin (CIP) on S. aureus.
intermediate
susceptible
resistant
resistant
These are the results of an antimicrobial susceptibility test. Your lab partner reviews the zone measurement of each test drug and determines that chloramphenicol worked the best against the inoculated organism. How should you respond?
the inoculated organism is the most susceptible to vancomycin and ciprofloxacin given they have the largest relative zones
the inoculated organism is most susceptible to chloramphenicol given that it had the smaller relative zone diameter
before assuming drug sensitivity, you should look at the ranges reported in the CLSI table
before assuming drug sensitivity, you should look at the ranges reported in the CLSI table
These are the results of an antimicrobial susceptibility test. Which drug would you prescribe to your patient based on the results?
ampicillin (AM)
tigecycline (TGC)
chloramphenicol (C)
erythromycin (E)
tigecycline (TGC)
Rather than measure the zone diameters, can you make an accurate treatment determination by comparing the presence and relative size of the zones of inhibition?
No. Each zone of inhibition must be measured and compared with the CLSI table values to determine the best treatment option.
Yes. The best treatment option is a drug whose disk has the largest zone of inhibition.
Yes. The best treatment option is a drug whose disk has a zone of inhibition (regardless of size.
Yes. The best treatment option is a drug whose disk has the smallest zone of inhibition.
No. Each zone of inhibition must be measured and compared with the CLSI table values to determine the best treatment option.
These are the results of your patient’s antimicrobial susceptibility test. Using the CLSI table, determine which drug(s), if any, could be used to treat your patient. Select all the apply
rifampin (R)
gentamicin (GM)
trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (SXT)
chloramphenicol (C)
cephalothin (CF)
rifampin (R)
chloramphenicol (C)
Your lab partner decides to take a shortcut when inoculating the bacteria by swabbing from side to side in only one direction prior to disk placement. Which of the following would most likely result from this inoculation technique?
the plate would have overabundant growth
the bacteria would exhibit resistance to each of the antimicrobial drugs tested
the plate would have no growth
the plate would have gaps where the swab missed
the plate would have gaps where the swab missed
These are the results of an antimicrobial susceptibility test. Given the results, what should you do next?
repeat the experiment due to improper plate inoculation
add an additional drug disk in the area of confluence and re-incubate
measure each zone of inhibition and record the results
repeat the experiment because the plate is contaminated
Repeat the experiment due to improper plate inoculation
Based on the measurement in the image, what is the zone diameter?
3.6mm
36mm
18mm
1.8mm
36mm
Your Lab partner is examining an antimicrobial susceptibility test plate and takes note of the sizes of the zone diameters. Your partner assumes that the test microbe is more susceptible to COT than to VA. How do you respond?
Incorrect; the test microbe will be the most susceptible to the antimicrobial with the smallest zone diameter.
Correct; the test microbe will be the most susceptible to the antimicrobial with the largest zone diameter.
Not necessarily; the individual zone diameters must be compared with the ranges listed in the CLSI table to determine drug effectiveness.
Not necessarily; the zone diameter should not be used to determine the effectiveness of an antimicrobial drug.
Not necessarily; the individual zone diameters must be compared with the ranges listed in the CLSI table to determine drug effectiveness.
Which of the following can be determined by the antimicrobial susceptibility test?
the minimum inhibitory concentration of the drug
the in vitro susceptibility of the test microbe to the drug
the in vivo effectiveness of the drug on the test microbe
the drug’s mechanism of action
the in vitro susceptibility of the test microbe to the drug
Without measuring zone diameters, which drugs are Escherichia coli definitely resistant to?
You cannot determine this because you must measure the zone diameter and compare it to the CLSI table values
SXT and P
CC, CIP, and S
P, OX, CC, and E
P, OX, CC, and E
Measure the zone for streptomycin (S) using the provided ruler. Determine the effectiveness of S on Escherichia coli.
CLSI Values for S: resistant ≤ 11mm, intermediate 12-14mm, susceptible ≥15mm
susceptible
intermediate
resistant
susceptible
Measure the zone for tetracycline (TE) using the provided ruler. Determine the effectiveness of TE on Escherichia coli.
CLSI Values for TE: resistant ≤ 14mm, intermediate 15-18mm, susceptible ≥19mm
intermediate
resistant
susceptible
intermediate
Measure the zone for chloramphenicol (C) using the provided ruler. Determine the effectiveness of C on Escherichia coli.
CLSI Values for C: resistant ≤ 12mm, intermediate 13-17mm, susceptible ≥18mm
intermediate
resistant
susceptible
susceptible
Measure the zone for amoxicillin (AMC) using the provided ruler. Determine the effectiveness of AMC on Escherichia coli.
CLSI Values for AMC: resistant ≤13mm, intermediate 14-17mm, susceptible ≥18mm
susceptible
resistant
intermediate
resistant
Measure the zone for trimethoprim sulfa (SXT) using the provided ruler. Determine the effectiveness of SXT on Escherichia coli.
CLSI Values for SXT: resistant ≤10mm, intermediate 11-15mm, susceptible ≥16mm
intermediate
resistant
susceptible
susceptible
Measure the zone for ciprofloxacin (CIP) using the provided ruler. Determine the effectiveness of CIP on Escherichia coli.
CLSI Values for CIP: resistant ≤12mm, intermediate 13-16mm, susceptible ≥17mm
susceptible
resistant
intermediate
susceptible
Without measuring zone diameters, which drugs is/are Pseudomonas aeruginosa possibly susceptible to?
C, TM, and CIP
AMC, SXT, and P
CIP only
CC, TM, CF
C, TM, and CIP
Measure the zone for ciprofloxacin (CIP) using the provided ruler. Determine the effectiveness of CIP on Pseudomonas aeruginosa.
CLSI Values for CIP: resistant ≤12mm, intermediate 13-16mm, susceptible ≥17mm
susceptible
resistant
intermediate
susceptible
Measure the zone for tobramycin (TM) using the provided ruler. Determine the effectiveness of TM on Pseudomonas aeruginosa.
CLSI Values for TM: resistant ≤12mm, intermediate 13-14mm, susceptible ≥15mm
susceptible
resistant
intermediate
susceptible
Measure the zone for chloramphenicol (C) using the provided ruler. Determine the effectiveness of C on Pseudomonas aeruginosa.
CLSI Values for C: resistant ≤12mm, intermediate 13-17mm, susceptible ≥18mm
resistant
susceptible
intermediate
intermediate
Measure the zone for vancomycin (VA) using the provided ruler. Determine the effectiveness of VA on Streptococcus aureus.
CLSI Values for VA: resistant ≤9mm, intermediate 10-11mm, susceptible ≥12mm
susceptible
intermediate
resistant
susceptible