West Coast EMT Block 3 quiz

A 40-year-old patient without a history of seizures experiences a generalized (tonic-clonic) seizure. The LEAST likely cause of this seizure is:

Select one:

A. intracranial bleeding

B. epilepsy.

C. a brain tumor.

D. a serious infection.

B. epilepsy.

A patient who is experiencing aphasia is:

Select one:

A. not able to swallow without choking.

B. experiencing a right hemispheric stroke.

C. unable to produce or understand speech.

D. usually conscious but has slurred speech.

C. unable to produce or understand speech.

A patient who is possibly experiencing a stroke is NOT eligible for thrombolytic (fibrinolytic) therapy if he or she:

Select one:

A. is older than 60 years of age.

B. has had a prior heart attack.

C. has a GCS score that is less than 8.

D. has bleeding within the brain.

D. has bleeding within the brain.

A patient with an altered mental status is:

Select one:

A. completely unresponsive to all forms of stimuli.

B. typically alert but is confused as to preceding events.

C. not thinking clearly or is incapable of being aroused.

D. usually able to be aroused with a painful stimulus.

C. not thinking clearly or is incapable of being aroused.

Components of the Cincinnati Prehospital Stroke Scale include:

Select one:

A. facial droop, speech, and pupil size.

B. speech, pupil reaction, and memory.

C. arm drift, memory, and grip strength.

D. arm drift, speech, and facial droop.

D. arm drift, speech, and facial droop.

Febrile seizures:

Select one:

A. are usually benign but should be evaluated.

B. often result in permanent brain damage.

C. occur when a child's fever rises slowly.

D. are also referred to as absence seizures.

A. are usually benign but should be evaluated.

Individuals with chronic alcoholism are predisposed to intracranial bleeding and hypoglycemia secondary to abnormalities in the:

Select one:

A. kidneys.

B. liver.

C. pancreas.

D. brain.

B. liver.

Muscle control and body coordination are controlled by the:

Select one:

A. cerebellum.

B. brain stem.

C. cerebral cortex.

D. cerebrum.

A. cerebellum.

Status epilepticus is characterized by:

Select one:

A. profound tachycardia and total muscle flaccidity.

B. an absence seizure that is not preceded by an aura.

C. generalized seizures that last less than 5 minutes.

D. prolonged seizures without a return of consciousness.

D. prolonged seizures without a return of consciousness.

The most basic functions of the body, such as breathing, blood pressure, and swallowing, are controlled by the:

Select one:

A. cerebrum.

B. cerebellum.

C. brain stem.

D. cerebral cortex.

C. brain stem.

The MOST significant risk factor for a hemorrhagic stroke is:

Select one:

A. diabetes mellitus.

B. heavy exertion.

C. severe stress.

D. hypertension.

D. hypertension.

The spinal cord exits the cranium through the:

Select one:

A. cauda equina.

B. vertebral foramen.

C. foramen magnum.

D. foramen lamina.

C. foramen magnum.

The three major parts of the brain are the:

Select one:

A. cerebellum, medulla, and occiput.

B. brain stem, midbrain, and spinal cord.

C. midbrain, cerebellum, and spinal cord.

D. cerebrum, cerebellum, and brain stem.

D. cerebrum, cerebellum, and brain stem.

When assessing for arm drift of a patient with a suspected stroke, you should:

Select one:

A. expect to see one arm slowly drift down to the patient's side.

B. observe movement of the arms for approximately 2 minutes.

C. ask the patient to hold his or her arms up with the palms down.

D. ask the patient to close his or her eyes during the assessment.

D. ask the patient to close his or her eyes during the assessment.

When caring for a patient with documented hypoglycemia, you should be MOST alert for:

Select one:

A. a febrile convulsion.

B. a seizure.

C. an acute stroke.

D. respiratory distress.

B. a seizure.

Which of the following clinical signs is MOST suggestive of a ruptured aneurysm?

Select one:

A. Sudden, severe headache

B. Confusion and weakness

C. Nasal discharge of blood

D. Unilateral hemiparesis

A. Sudden, severe headache

Which of the following conditions would MOST likely affect the entire brain?

Select one:

A. Blocked cerebral artery in the frontal lobe

B. Ruptured cerebral artery in the occipital lobe

C. Respiratory failure or cardiopulmonary arrest

D. Reduced blood supply to the left hemisphere

C. Respiratory failure or cardiopulmonary arrest

Which of the following findings should concern the EMT the MOST when assessing a patient who complains of a headache?

Select one:

A. Slow onset of symptoms

B. History of migraines

C. Neck stiffness or pain

D. Sinus congestion

C. Neck stiffness or pain

Which of the following is characteristic of a focal-onset aware seizure?

Select one:

A. Absence of breathing

B. Normal level of consciousness

C. Generalized twitching of all muscles

D. No change in vision, smell, or taste

B. Normal level of consciousness

Which of the following MOST accurately describes the cause of an ischemic stroke?

Select one:

A. Acute atherosclerotic disease

B. Rupture of a cerebral artery

C. Blockage of a cerebral artery

D. Narrowing of a carotid artery

C. Blockage of a cerebral artery

A 60-year-old female presents with a tearing sensation in her lower back. Her skin is sweaty, and she is tachycardic. The EMT should suspect:

Select one:

A. kidney stones.

B. acute pancreatitis.

C. aortic aneurysm.

D. strangulated hernia.

C. aortic aneurysm.

A strangulated hernia is one that:

Select one:

A. loses its blood supply due to compression by local tissues.

B. spontaneously reduces without any surgical intervention.

C. is reducible if surgical intervention occurs within 2 hours.

D. can be pushed back into the body cavity to which it belongs.

A. loses its blood supply due to compression by local tissues.

Chronic renal failure is a condition that:

Select one:

A. occurs from conditions such as dehydration.

B. is often caused by hypertension or diabetes.

C. causes dehydration from excessive urination.

D. can be reversed with prompt treatment.

B. is often caused by hypertension or diabetes.

Erosion of the protective layer of the stomach or duodenum secondary to overactivity of digestive juices results in:

Select one:

A. cholecystitis.

B. Ileus.

C. appendicitis.

D. an ulcer.

D. an ulcer.

Esophageal varices MOST commonly occur in patients who:

Select one:

A. consume a lot of alcohol.

B. have a history of esophagitis.

C. have uncontrolled diabetes.

D. have weak immune systems.

A. consume a lot of alcohol.

Most patients with abdominal pain prefer to:

Select one:

A. lie in a supine position with their knees in a flexed position.

B. lie on their side with their knees drawn into the abdomen.

C. sit in a semi-Fowler position with their knees slightly bent.

D. sit fully upright because it helps relax the abdominal muscles.

B. lie on their side with their knees drawn into the abdomen.

Pain that may be perceived at a distant point on the surface of the body, such as the back or shoulder, is called:

Select one:

A. remote pain.

B. referred pain.

C. visceral pain.

D. radiating pain.

B. referred pain.

Pain that radiates to the right lower quadrant from the umbilical area, nausea and vomiting, and lack of appetite are MOST indicative of:

Select one:

A. pancreatitis.

B. cholecystitis.

C. gastroenteritis.

D. appendicitis.

D. appendicitis.

Solid abdominal organs include the:

Select one:

A. urinary bladder, colon, and ureters.

B. stomach and small intestine.

C. spleen, kidneys, and pancreas.

D. gallbladder and large intestine.

C. spleen, kidneys, and pancreas.

The kidneys help to regulate blood pressure by:

Select one:

A. removing sodium and water from the body.

B. accommodating a large amount of blood volume.

C. retaining key electrolytes, such as potassium.

D. eliminating toxic waste products from the body.

A. removing sodium and water from the body.

The MOST common and significant complication associated with an acute abdomen is:

Select one:

A. high fever.

B. severe pain.

C. internal bleeding.

D. peritonitis.

D. peritonitis.

The parietal peritoneum lines the:

Select one:

A. retroperitoneal space.

B. walls of the abdominal cavity.

C. lungs and chest cavity.

D. surface of the abdominal organs.

B. walls of the abdominal cavity.

The principal symptom in both infectious and noninfectious gastroenteritis is:

Select one:

A. vomiting.

B. high fever.

C. diarrhea.

D. dysuria.

C. diarrhea.

Which of the following conditions is more common in women than in men?

Select one:

A. Cholecystitis

B. Hepatitis

C. Cystitis

D. Pancreatitis

C. Cystitis

Which of the following is characteristic of peptic ulcer disease (PUD)?

Select one

A. Burning or gnawing stomach pain that subsides immediately after eating

B. Sharp pain that is typically located in both lower abdominal quadrants

C. Symptom relief after taking nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs

D. The passage of bright red blood in the stool or coughing up blood

A. Burning or gnawing stomach pain that subsides immediately after eating

Which of the following organs assists in the filtration of blood, serves as a blood reservoir, and produces antibodies?

Select one:

A. Liver

B. Kidneys

C. Spleen

D. Pancreas

C. Spleen

Which of the following organs lies in the retroperitoneal space?

Select one:

A. Spleen

B. Gallbladder

C. Liver

D. Pancreas

D. Pancreas

Which of the following organs would MOST likely bleed profusely if injured?

Select one:

A. Appendix

B. Liver

C. Stomach

D. Gallbladder

B. Liver

Which of the following statements regarding the acute abdomen is correct?

Select one:

A. An acute abdomen almost always occurs as the result of blunt trauma to solid abdominal organs.

B. The initial pain associated with an acute abdomen tends to be vague and poorly localized.

C. The most common cause of an acute abdomen is inflammation of the gallbladder and liver.

D. The parietal peritoneum is typically the first abdominal layer that becomes inflamed or irritated.

B. The initial pain associated with an acute abdomen tends to be vague and poorly localized.

Your patient's past medical history includes hypertension, congestive heart failure, diabetes, and seizures. Today, he presents with signs of acute renal failure. Which of his medical problems MOST likely caused this?

Select one:

A. Seizures

B. Hypertension

C. Diabetes

D. Heart failure

D. Heart failure

A 28-year-old female patient is found to be responsive to verbal stimuli only. Her roommate states that she was recently diagnosed with type 1 diabetes and has had difficulty controlling her blood sugar level. She further tells you that the patient has been urinating excessively and has progressively worsened over the last 24 to 36 hours. On the basis of this patient's clinical presentation, you should suspect that she:

Select one:

A. has a urinary tract infection.

B. has a low blood glucose level.

C. has overdosed on her insulin.

D. is significantly hyperglycemic.

D. is significantly hyperglycemic

Classic signs and symptoms of hypoglycemia include:

Select one:

A. warm, dry skin; hunger; abdominal pain; and deep, slow respirations.

B. cool, clammy skin; weakness; tachycardia; and rapid respirations.

C. warm, dry skin; irritability; bradycardia; and rapid respirations.

D. cold, clammy skin; bradycardia; hunger; and deep, rapid respirations.

B. cool, clammy skin; weakness; tachycardia; and rapid respirations.

Diabetes is MOST accurately defined as a(n):

Select one:

A. disorder of glucose metabolism.

B. mass excretion of glucose by the kidneys.

C. lack of insulin production in the pancreas.

D. abnormally high blood glucose level.

A. disorder of glucose metabolism.

Diabetic ketoacidosis occurs when:

Select one:

A. insulin is not available in the body.

B. blood glucose levels rapidly fall.

C. the cells rapidly metabolize glucose.

D. the pancreas produces excess insulin.

A. insulin is not available in the body.

Excessive eating caused by cellular "hunger" is called:

Select one:

A. polydipsia.

B. polyphagia.

C. dysphasia.

D. dyspepsia.

B. polyphagia.

Hemoglobin is:

Select one:

A. the fluid portion of the blood that transports cells throughout the body.

B. a key component of the blood and is produced in response to an infection.

C. found within the red blood cells and is responsible for carrying oxygen.

D. essential for the formation of clots, such as when vessel damage occurs.

C. found within the red blood cells and is responsible for carrying oxygen.

In general, oral glucose should be given to any patient who:

Select one:

A. has documented hypoglycemia and an absent gag reflex.

B. has an altered mental status and a history of diabetes.

C. has a blood glucose level that is less than 100 mg/dL.

D. is unresponsive, even in the absence of a history of diabetes.

B. has an altered mental status and a history of diabetes.

Patients with thrombophilia are at an increased risk for:

Select one:

A. hemorrhagic stroke.

B. pulmonary embolism.

C. various cancers.

D. acute arterial rupture.

B. pulmonary embolism.

Patients with type 2 diabetes usually control their disease with all of the following, EXCEPT:

Select one:

A. tolbutamide (Orinase).

B. glyburide (Micronase).

C. diet and exercise.

D. supplemental insulin.

D. supplemental insulin.

Patients with uncontrolled diabetes experience polyuria because:

Select one:

A. high blood sugar levels cause permanent kidney damage.

B. they drink excess amounts of water due to dehydration.

C. excess glucose in the blood is excreted by the kidneys.

D. low blood glucose levels result in cellular dehydration.

C. excess glucose in the blood is excreted by the kidneys.

Proper procedure for administering oral glucose to a patient includes all of the following, EXCEPT:

Select one:

A. assessing the patient's mental status.

B. requesting permission from medical control.

C. checking the medication's expiration date.

D. ensuring the absence of a gag reflex.

D. ensuring the absence of a gag reflex.

Symptomatic hypoglycemia will MOST likely develop if a patient:

Select one:

A. eats a regular meal followed by mild exertion.

B. misses one or two prescribed insulin injections.

C. markedly overeats and misses an insulin dose.

D. takes too much of his or her prescribed insulin.

D. takes too much of his or her prescribed insulin.

The normal blood glucose level is between:

Select one:

A. 80 and 120 mg/dL.

B. 160 and 200 mg/dL.

C. 60 and 80 mg/dL.

D. 130 and 150 mg/dL.

A. 80 and 120 mg/dL.

To which of the following diabetic patients should you administer oral glucose?

Select one:

A. A conscious 37-year-old female with nausea and vomiting

B. A confused 55-year-old male with tachycardia and pallor

C. An unconscious 33-year-old male with cool, clammy skin

D. A semiconscious 40-year-old female without a gag reflex

B. A confused 55-year-old male with tachycardia and pallor

Type 1 diabetes:

Select one:

A. is defined as a blood sugar level that is less than 120 mg/dL.

B. typically occurs in patients between 50 and 70 years of age.

C. is typically treated with medications such as metformin.

D. is a condition in which no insulin is produced by the body.

D. is a condition in which no insulin is produced by the body.

When assessing an unresponsive diabetic patient, the primary visible difference between hyperglycemia and hypoglycemia is the:

Select one:

A. rate of the patient's pulse.

B. rate and depth of breathing.

C. patient's mental status.

D. presence of a medical identification tag.

B. rate and depth of breathing.

When obtaining a SAMPLE history from a patient with diabetes who has an altered mental status, it would be MOST important to determine:

Select one:

A. if he or she has had any recent illnesses or excessive stress.

B. the name of the physician who prescribed his or her insulin.

C. approximately how much water the patient drank that day.

D. if there is a family history of diabetes or related conditions.

A. if he or she has had any recent illnesses or excessive stress.

Which of the following conditions is the diabetic patient at an increased risk of developing?

Select one:

A. Blindness

B. Alcoholism

C. Hepatitis B

D. Depression

A. Blindness

Which of the following signs or symptoms would the EMT MOST likely encounter in a patient with new-onset type 1 diabetes?

Select one:

A. Low blood glucose level

B. Weight gain and edema

C. Total lack of appetite

D. Weight loss and polyuria

D. Weight loss and polyuria

Which of the following statements regarding sickle cell disease is correct?

Select one:

A. Sickle cell disease is an inherited blood disorder that causes the blood to clot too quickly.

B. The red blood cells of patients with sickle cell disease are round and contain hemoglobin.

C. In sickle cell disease, the red blood cells are abnormally shaped and are less able to carry oxygen.

D. Because of their abnormal shape, red blood cells in patients with sickle cell disease are less apt to lodge in a blood vessel.

C. In sickle cell disease, the red blood cells are abnormally shaped and are less able to carry oxygen.

A 38-year-old woman was bitten by fire ants while at the park. Your primary assessment reveals that she is semiconscious; has labored breathing; and has a rapid, thready pulse.

She has a red rash on her entire body, and her face is swollen. You should:

Select one:

A. locate the area where the fire ants bit her.

B. assist her ventilations with 100% oxygen.

C. place her supine with her legs elevated.

D. perform a rapid secondary assessment.

B. assist her ventilations with 100% oxygen.

A raised, swollen, well-defined area on the skin that is the result of an insect bite or sting is called:

Select one:

A. urticaria.

B. a pustule.

C. a wheal.

D. purpura.

C. a wheal.

Chemicals that are responsible for the signs and symptoms of an allergic reaction to a bee sting include:

Select one:

A. histamines and leukotrienes.

B. the bee venom itself.

C. leukocytes and epinephrine.

D. adrenaline and histamines.

A. histamines and leukotrienes.

Common signs and symptoms of an allergic reaction include all of the following, EXCEPT:

Select one:

A. drying of the eyes.

B. flushing of the skin.

C. abdominal cramps.

D. persistent dry cough

A. drying of the eyes.

Epinephrine is indicated for patients with an allergic reaction when:

Select one:

A. the patient is anxious and tachycardic.

B. the reaction produces severe urticaria.

C. wheezing and hypotension are present.

D. a paramedic is present at the scene.

C. wheezing and hypotension are present.

Immediately after giving an epinephrine injection, you should:

Select one:

A. properly dispose of the syringe.

B. notify medical control of your action.

C. record the time and dose given.

D. reassess the patient's vital signs.

A. properly dispose of the syringe.

The effects of epinephrine are typically observed within_______ following administration.

Select one:

A. 30 minutes

B. 30 seconds

C. 1 hour

D. 1 minute

D. 1 minute

The foreign substance responsible for causing an allergic reaction is called an):

Select one:

A. leukotriene.

B. allergen.

C. histamine.

D. antibody.

B. allergen

The stinger from a honeybee should be:

Select one:

A. irrigated with copious amounts of water.

B. left in place and covered.

C. squeezed with tweezers and removed.

D. scraped away from the skin.

D. scraped away from the skin.

Two of the MOST common signs of anaphylaxis are:

Select one:

A. hypertension and swollen hands.

B. urticaria and angioedema.

C. expiratory stridor and tachycardia.

D. watery eyes and localized itching.

B. urticaria and angioedema.

Urticaria is the medical term for:

Select one:

A. a wheal.

B. burning.

C. hives.

D. swelling.

C. hives.

When administering epinephrine via auto-injector, you should hold the injector in place for:

Select one:

A. 10 seconds.

B. 3 seconds.

C. 15 seconds.

D. 8 seconds.

B. 3 seconds.

When an auto-injector is used to give epinephrine, the primary injection site is the:

Select one:

A. lateral portion of the thigh.

B. medial part of the buttocks.

C. lateral portion of the arm.

D. medial portion of the thigh.

A. lateral portion of the thigh.

Which of the following MOST accurately defines an allergic reaction?

Select one:

A. Destruction of the immune system by an external substance

B. A release of erythrocytes in response to a foreign substance

C. A direct negative effect on the body by an external substance

D. An exaggerated immune system response to any substance

D. An exaggerated immune system response to any substance

Which of the following negative effects of anaphylaxis will be the MOST rapidly fatal if not treated immediately?

Select one:

A. Severe hypotension

B. Diffuse urticaria

C. Upper airway swelling

D. Systemic vasodilation

C. Upper airway swelling

Which of the following patients would MOST likely have a delayed onset of an allergic reaction?

Select one:

A. A 30-year-old male who was stung by a bee

B. A 21-year-old female who inhaled pollen

C. A 45-year-old male who ingested penicillin

D. A 50-year-old male who was exposed to latex

C. A 45-year-old male who ingested penicillin

Which of the following sounds indicates swelling of the upper airway?

Select one:

A. Wheezing

B. Rhonchi

C. Rales

D. Stridor

D. Stridor

Which of the following statements regarding fire ants is correct?

Select one:

A. Fire ants often bite a person repeatedly.

B. Fire ant bites typically occur on the face.

C. Fire ant bites rarely cause anaphylaxis.

D. Most people are allergic to fire ant toxin.

A. Fire ants often bite a person repeatedly.

Which of the following would MOST likely provide clues regarding the source of a patient's allergic reaction?

Select one:

A. The time of year in which the exposure occurred

B. The patient's general physical appearance

C. The patient's family history

D. The environment in which the patient is found

D. The environment in which the patient is found

While auscultating breath sounds of a patient who was stung multiple times by a yellow jacket, you hear bilateral wheezing over all lung fields. This indicates:

Select one:

A. enlargement of the bronchioles in the lungs.

B. rapid swelling of the upper airway tissues.

C. a significant amount of fluid in the alveoli.

D. narrowing of the bronchioles in the lungs.

D. narrowing of the bronchioles in the lungs.

A hypnotic drug is one that:

Select one:

A. increases the senses.

B. induces sleep.

C. prevents amnesia.

D. increases the pulse.

B. induces sleep.

A patient who presents with rapid breathing, nausea and vomiting, ringing in the ears, and hyperthermia should be suspected of ingesting a significant quantity of:

Select one:

A. cocaine.

B. aspirin.

C. acetaminophen.

D. ibuprofen.

B. aspirin.

A person who routinely misuses a substance and requires increasing amounts to achieve the same effect is experiencing:

Select one:

A. addiction.

B. tolerance.

C. withdrawal.

D. dependence.

B. tolerance.

Activated charcoal may be indicated for a patient who ingested:

Select one:

A. aspirin.

B. methanol.

C. iron.

D. ethanol.

A. aspirin.

After administering activated charcoal to a patient, it is most important to:

Select one:

A. monitor the patient's blood pressure.

B. be alert for vomiting.

C. call medical control.

D. document the intervention.

B. be alert for vomiting.

Airborne substances should be diluted with:

Select one:

A. oxygen.

B. activated charcoal.

C. an alkaline antidote.

D. syrup of ipecac.

A. oxygen.

An EMT's primary responsibility to the patient who has been poisoned is to:

Select one:

A. recognize that a poisoning occurred.

B. administer the appropriate antidote.

C. contact poison control immediately.

D. administer 25 g of activated charcoal.

A. recognize that a poisoning occurred.

Common names for activated charcoal include all of the following, except:

Select one:

A. Actidose.

B. LiquiChar.

C. InstaChar.

D. Fructose.

D. Fructose

Heroin is an example of an):

Select one:

A. cholinergic.

B. hypnotic.

C. sympathomimetic.

D. opioid.

D. opioid.

Hypotension, hypoventilation, and pinpoint pupils would be expected following an overdose of:

Select one:

A. crack cocaine.

B. oxycodone (Percocet).

C. amphetamine sulfate (Benzedrine).

D. ecstasy.

B. oxycodone (Percocet).

If you are uncertain how to treat a patient who has been poisoned or exposed to a specific substance, you should:

Select one:

A. try to find the container the substance was in.

B. encourage the patient to drink milk or water.

C. administer naloxone via the intranasal route.

D. keep the patient supine and elevate his legs.

A. try to find the container the substance was in.

Most poisonings occur via ______ the

route.

Select one:

A. inhalation

B. ingestion

C. absorption

D. injection

B. ingestion

Signs and symptoms of a sympathomimetic drug overdose include:

Select one:

A. hypotension.

B. tachycardia.

C. hypothermia.

D. slurred speech.

B. tachycardia.

Substance abuse is most accurately defined as:

Select one:

A. unwillingly and unknowingly consuming drugs or alcohol.

B. willfully using a therapeutic drug to treat a medical illness.

C. knowingly selling illicit drugs to buy more drugs.

D. misusing a substance to produce a desired effect.

D. misusing a substance to produce a desired effect.

The major side effect associated with administration of activated charcoal is:

Select one:

A. headache.

B. black stools.

C. abdominal pain.

D. ringing in the ears.

B. black stools.

The poison control center will provide you with the most information regarding the appropriate treatment for a patient with a drug overdose if the center:

Select one:

A. knows the location of the closest hospital.

B. is aware of the substance that is involved.

C. knows why the patient overdosed on the drug.

D. is aware of the patient's age and gender.

B. is aware of the substance that is involved.

What type of poisoning will cause burns around the mouth in children?

Select one:

A. Alkaline poison.

B. Injected poison.

C. Plant poisoning.

D. Inhaled poison.

A. Alkaline poison.

Which of the following questions would be least pertinent during the initial questioning of a patient who ingested a substance?

Select one:

A. What type of substance was taken?

B. How long ago was the substance taken?

C. How much of the substance was taken?

D. Why was the substance ingested?

D. Why was the substance ingested?

Which of the following statements regarding the Salmonella bacterium is correct?

Select one:

A. The Salmonella bacterium itself causes food poisoning.

B. The Salmonella bacterium produces toxins that cause food poisoning.

C. Refrigeration of food will prevent salmonellosis.

D. Symptoms of salmonellosis appear within 12 hours.

A. The Salmonella bacterium itself causes food poisoning.

Your priority in caring for a patient with a surface contact poisoning is to:

Select one:

A. avoid contaminating yourself.

B. move the patient to a safe area.

C. obtain and maintain a patent airway.

D. decontaminate the patient's skin.

A. avoid contaminating yourself.