antibiotic tingz

beta lactams are bactericidal or static? time or concentration dependent?

cidial; time

gram + aerobes and G+ and G- anaerobes

Procaine penicillin G

reaction" (excitation) can occur in horses if given IV instead of IM/SC.

Procaine penicillin G

G+ and G- aerobes (not Enterbacter)

Aminopenicillins (Amoxicillin, Ampicillin)

which is better absorbed orally, amox or amp?

amox

G+ aerobes and anaerobes; greatly increased efficacy against acquired-resistance bacteria

Potentiated penicillins (Amoxicillin-clavulanate, Ampicillin-sulbactam)

Effective against beta-lactamase-producing Staphylococcus aureus because staphylococcal beta-lactamase enzymes show little power against these specific penicillins.

Antistaphylococcal penicillins (Dicloxacillin, Oxacillin)

Targeted toward Gram-negative organisms like Pseudomonas spp.

Antipseudomonal penicillins (Piperacillin-tazobactam)

Primarily effective against Gram-positive bacteria (e.g., Staphylococcus, Streptococcus) with the important addition of resistance to staphylococcal beta-lactamase. They have good activity against fastidious Gram-negative organisms (like Pasteurella), but MRSA, MRSP, Enterococcus, Pseudomonas, and Bacteroides fragilis are commonly resistant.

First Generation Cephalosporins (Cefazolin, Cefadroxil, Cephalexin, Cephapirin)

_____ is administered parenterally and is used heavily for surgical wound prophylaxis to rapidly establish high tissue levels.

Cefazolin

____ and ____are oral medications used heavily for skin/soft tissue and urinary tract infections in small animals.

Cefadroxil and Cephalexin

____ is an intramammary formulation used for the treatment and prevention of Gram-positive mastitis.

Cephapirin

 Broader Gram-negative activity than first generations (including Enterobacter and Serratia) but slightly less Gram-positive activity.Pseudomonas, Enterococcus, and MRSA are resistant.

Second Generation Cephalosporins (e.g., Cefoxitin)

High antibacterial activity against most Gram-negative Enterobacteriaceae (E. coli, Klebsiella, Salmonella) and broad resistance to beta-lactamases. MRSA, Pseudomonas aeruginosa, and Enterococci are typically resistant

Third Generation Cephalosporins (Ceftiofur, Cefovecin, Cefpodoxime)

Gram-negative anaerobes like Bacteroides are often resistant, with the exception of _____.

Ceftiofur

_____ is a prodrug with a longer half-life (6 hours) in dogs.

Cefpodoxime

IV injection of_____ can be fatal.

Ceftiofur Crystalline Free Acid (CCFA)

FDA prohibition on the Extra-Label Drug Use (ELDU) of_____ in major food animal species for disease prevention or unapproved routes/doses.

cephalosporins

____ Extremely high compliance as it is a single-dose SQ injection that maintains therapeutic concentrations for 7 days in cats and 7-14 days in dogs.

Cefovecin (Convenia

_____: Given as a convenient daily oral tablet for canine skin infections.

Cefpodoxime (Simplicef)

Almost identical to other 3rd generation drugs, but with 10 times greater activity against Pseudomonas aeruginosa.

Third Generation, Antipseudomonal Cephalosporins (Ceftazidime)

Broad spectrum that includes Gram-positive cocci, enteric Gram-negative bacilli, Pseudomonas, and some Extended-Spectrum Beta-Lactamase (ESBL) producing strains of Klebsiella and E. coli.

Fourth Generation Cephalosporins (Cefepime, Cefquinome)

Exhibits the widest activity of any antibiotic; highly active against virtually all important aerobic and anaerobic bacterial groups due to high beta-lactamase resistance. MRSA, MRSP, and Enterococcus faecium are resistant

Carbapenems (Meropenem, Imipenem-cilastatin, Ertapenem)

____is intrinsically resistant to Pseudomonas and usually ineffective against Enterococcus.

Ertapenem

___ has a short half-life and is rapidly metabolized by a dihydropeptidase enzyme in the renal tubules; it must be combined with cilastatin to inhibit this enzyme and delay elimination.

Imipenem

___can cause nephrotoxicity, and both ____ and ____ are associated with seizures

Imipenem; Imipenem and Ertapenem

____ can cause injection site reactions.

Meropenem

They are bactericidal and primarily effective against aerobic Gram-negative organisms (such as Pseudomonas spp., E. coli, and Enterobacter) as well as Gram-positive Staphylococcus. They are completely inactive against anaerobes because their transport into the bacterial cell is oxygen-dependent.

Aminoglycosides (Gentamicin, Amikacin)

____ specifically causes vestibular damage, while ___ causes cochlear damage.

Gentamicin; Amikacin

Aminoglycosides are concentration or time dependent? bactericidal or static?

concentration; cidial

2 multiple choice options

They are bacteriostatic, broad-spectrum antibiotics covering all four quadrants: Gram-positive, Gram-negative, aerobes, and anaerobes. They are also highly effective against intracellular organisms like Rickettsia, Ehrlichia, Chlamydia, Anaplasma, and Mycoplasma.

Tetracyclines (Chlortetracycline, Oxytetracycline, Tetracycline, Doxycycline, Minocycline)

Tetracyclines are concentration or time dependent? bactericidal or static?

time; static

____ is mostly eliminated via intestinal excretion (P-gp), whereas ____ is eliminated via urine, bile, and liver metabolism.

Doxycycline; Minocycline

IV Doxycycline is fatal in

horses

____ is a feed additive

Chlortetracycline

____ is oral/parenteral/topical

Oxytetracycline

____ is oral

Tetracycline

____ are oral/parenteral

Doxy/Minocycline

. Extra-label drug use (ELDU) is approved and legal for ____

Oxytetracycline.

is Chloramphenicol and Florfenicol bacteriostatic or cidal?

static (Binds 50S ribosomal subunit → inhibits protein synthesis)

are phenicols time or concentration dependent?

time

Broad spectrum covering most Gram-positive (including MRSA and MRSP) and many Gram-negative bacteria. They are effective against anaerobic infections and intracellular organisms like Rickettsia, Chlamydia, and protozoa. Pseudomonas aeruginosa is typically resistant, and resistance often emerges in Gram-negative enteric bacteria (like E. coli and Klebsiella).

phenicols (Chloramphenicol, Florfenicol )

____specifically targets highly susceptible bacteria like Mannheimia, Pasteurella, Histophilus, and Mycoplasma.

Florfenicol

______can cause a rare, irreversible, and fatal aplastic anemia in humans upon contact. In animals, it can cause reversible, dose-related bone marrow depression (especially in cats), adverse GI effects, and acts as a microsomal p450 enzyme inhibitor.

Chloramphenicol

____ has a lower risk of aplastic anemia but can cause anorexia in cattle, milk residues, and bone marrow suppression.

Florfenicol

_____ is strictly prohibited in food animals

Chloramphenicol

_____ is approved for food animals (cattle, swine, fish) and is often given as a convenient single SQ injection for bovine respiratory disease.

Florfenicol

Good activity against most aerobe and anaerobe Gram-positive species, fastidious Gram-negative aerobes (e.g., Actinobacillus, Pasteurella), Brucella, Chlamydia, and Mycoplasma. They are typically resistant to most enterobacteria (E. coli, Salmonella), Pseudomonas, and Bacteroides fragilis.

Macrolides

Tulathromycin, Tilmicosin, Tildipirosin, Erythromycin, Azithromycin, Tylosin, Gamithromycin, Clarithromycin

are macrolides bacteriocidal or static?

static (bind to 50S ribosome)

are macrolides concentration or time dependent?

time

They cause severe pain on IM injection. They can disrupt normal intestinal flora, leading to severe or fatal diarrheal illness in adult horses and ruminants (often overgrowth of C. difficile)

macrolides

____ possesses severe cardiac toxicity (rapid calcium depletion).

Tilmicosin

______ must be handled with "exquisite" care and safety syringes, as accidental injection in humans, horses, swine, or goats can be fatal. Used in respiratory infections in cattle and sheep (injection) and PO for swine respiratory disease

Tilmicosin

Drugs like _____, _________, ________ are utilized highly in livestock because they maintain long half-lives in the lung, requiring only a single SQ dose.

Tulathromycin, Gamithromycin, and Tildipirosin

_____ (often combined with Rifampin) is widely utilized for treating Rhodococcus equi in foals

Erythromycin

____ targets G+ anaerobes and mycoplasma in small animals (IM) and for IBD (PO)

Tylosin

Effective against Gram-positive bacteria (e.g., Staphylococcus aureus, Rhodococcus), several Gram-negative bacteria, and intracellular infections like Brucella. It also exhibits some antifungal and antiviral activity.

Rifampin 

is rifampin bactericidal or static?

Bacteriostatic on its own, but bactericidal when combined with a macrolide.

It is a microsomal P-450 inducer, which can heavily modify the clearance of concurrently administered drugs. Anecdotal reports suggest hepatic toxicity in dogs.

rifampin

Active against Gram-positive bacteria, anaerobes, and Mycoplasma. Clindamycin is also active against Toxoplasma. They lack activity against most aerobic Gram-negative rods. Enterococcus and an increasing number of B. fragilis strains are resistant.

Lincosamides 

Lincomycin, Clindamycin, Pirlimycin

are lincosamides bactericidal or static?

static (binds to 50S ribosome)

Avoid in horses and sheep, as they can cause fatal diarrheas. Mild diarrhea can occur in swine and cattle.

Lincosamides

macrolides: _____is approved for dogs, cats, and pigs; ____is used heavily in dogs; and ___ is used for intramammary bovine mastitis. ___ is often combined with spectinomycin via feed or water in livestock.

Lincomycin; Clindamycin; Pirlimycin; Lincomycin

Highly active against anaerobic bacteria (e.g., Bacteroides, Fusobacterium, Clostridium) and protozoa (Trichomonas, Giardia). It has no activity against aerobic bacteria.

metronidazole

is metronidazole static or cidal?

cidal (break bacterial DNA strands)

Causes neurotoxicity at high doses (>50 mg/kg for 3-14 days), though this is reversible in dogs and recovery is sped up by diazepam. It is also known to be carcinogenic and mutagenic.

metronidazole

Prohibited in food animals and should not be administered to pregnant animals.

metronidazole

They possess a broad spectrum against Gram-positive and Gram-negative aerobes, as well as protozoa like Coccidia and Toxoplasma. They exhibit poor in vivo activity against anaerobic bacteria. Resistant organisms commonly include Pseudomonas, Enterococcus, Bacteroides, Mycoplasma, MRSA, and MRSP.

Sulfonamides

are Sulfonamides cidial or static? time or concentration?

Sulfonamides on their own are bacteriostatic, but when "potentiated" (combined with diaminopyrimidines like trimethoprim, baquiloprim, or ormetoprim), the combination becomes bactericidal; time

While they generally have a wide safety margin, they can cause crystalluria, hematuria, thrombocytopenia, and anemia. Hypersensitivity reactions can occur, primarily in Doberman pinschers. Long-term treatment in dogs can cause keratoconjunctivitis sicca (dry eye), polyarthritis, and hypothyroidism.

Sulfonamides

Extralabel use of ____ is strictly prohibited in lactating dairy cattle in the US.

sulfonamides

Their efficacy is heavily decreased in the presence of purulent material or necrotic debris due to an excess of PABA in the environment

sulfonamides

Narrow Gram-negative spectrum

1st Generation (Nalidixic acid) Fluoroquinolones

Broad Gram-negative activity (e.g., E. coli, Pseudomonas, Pasteurella) and some Gram-positive activity (Staphylococcus). They lack anaerobic efficacy but are highly active against intracellular pathogens like Brucella, Mycoplasma, Chlamydia, and Rickettsia

2nd Generation Fluoroquinolones(Enrofloxacin, Orbifloxacin, Marbofloxacin, Difloxacin, Ciprofloxacin)

Fluoroquinolones: ___is more active than ____ for gram - bacilli. ___ is more active against Staphylococcus

Ciprofloxacin; Enrofloxacin; Enrofloxacin

Expanded spectrum that boasts increased activity against Gram-positive cocci, gram negative, and anaerobic bacteria.

3rd & 4th Generation Fluoroquinolones (Pradofloxacin, Levofloxacin, Moxifloxacin, Trovafloxacin)

are Fluoroquinolones cidal ot static? concentration or time?

cidial; concentration

Fluoroquinolones excretion is predominantly renal, except for ____, which is 80% eliminated in feces.

Difloxacin

Overall safe, but known adverse effects include arthropathy (erosion of joint cartilage), seizures, retinal toxicity, and negative drug interactions

Fluoroquinolones

Fluoroquinolones: DO NOT use ____ in dogs (causes bone marrow suppression)

Pradoflocaxin

Oral bioavailability is significantly decreased in the presence of multivalent cations (like Mg2+, Al3+, Ca2+ found in antacids)

Fluoroquinolones