RAWS CDC Full Set A and B Combined

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Last updated 2:23 AM on 5/4/26
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557 Terms

1
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What is the main goal of the Utilization and Training Workshop (U&TW)?

Establish a viable Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP)

2
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Where is the newly graduated 3-level required to attend training after arriving at his or her new base?

First-Term Airman Center(FTAC)

3
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Which course is designed to target NCOs who completed Airman Leadership School (ALS)?

Noncommissioned Officer Professional Enhancement course (NCOPE)

4
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Who provides critical maintenance and repair to navigational aids, instrument landing systems, and many other pieces of equipment that ensure the safety of aircrews accomplishing their missions?

Radar, Airfield & Weather Systems (RAWS) technicians

5
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Where are the details concerning specific responsibilities for your AFSC found?

Your AFSC-specific Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP)

6
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What information system supports base, wing, and work center level training management activities?

Training Business Area (TBA)

7
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What information system uses inputs from various sources, provides the capability to view equipment status, and drill down capability to serial number information from all levels?

Global Cyber Support Systems-Dashboard (GCSS-D)

8
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Who is responsible for unit self-assessments?

Commanders

9
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What program assesses the effectiveness of a work center's training program, technician competence, and technical and procedural data adequacy?

Personnel Evaluation

10
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Which evaluation assesses unit type code (UTC) personnel readiness against the UTC mission capability (MISCAP) and ensures mission reliability?

UTC personnel evaluation

11
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Who can authorize the substitution of pre/post deployment inspections to satisfy the requirements for and equipment evaluation?

Commander

12
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How often will quality assurance (QA) evaluate all core base voice/video/data transport and transmission systems?

Every 18 months

13
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Where can you find the sampling plan for unit type code (UTC) equipment evaluations?

AFI 13-204, Volume 4, Management of Ground Radar and Airfield Systems, Attachment 4, Sampling Plan

14
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Technicians will be decertified if they receive which rating on a personnel evaluation?

Not in compliance (NIC)

15
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Who is the closing authority for unsatisfactory evaluations?

Unit Commander

16
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Which operational support flight provides airfield management and air traffic operations services to the base flying wing transient and civil users?

Airfield Operations Flight (OSA)

17
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Which operational support flight performs maintenance on radar, NAVAIDS, weather, and ATC radio systems?

Radar, Airfield and Weather Systems (RAWS) Flight

18
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What agency acts as the lead command for the creation and application of criteria, procedures, and precision equipment for worldwide instrument flight operations, air traffic control, airfield management, and air traffic control and landing systems for the Air Force?

Air Force Flight Standards Agency (AFFSA)

19
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Where is the headquarters of the 557th Weather Wing located?

Offutt AFB, Nebraska

20
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What program is Operation Location Kilo responsible for managing?

Department of Defense's portion of the next-generation weather radar program

21
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What dictates when air traffic control squadrons are activated for deployment?

Operations Tempo

22
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Who provides the theater Air Force commander a rapid reaction mobile air control system and control/reporting center during worldwide contingencies?

Air Control Squadron

23
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Who is the only entity that can grant exemptions to Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) standards?

Department of Labor

24
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Which action is not a determining factor for the severity of an electric shock?

Conductance ratio of voltage versus time exposed

25
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What amount of current flow through the human body can cause shock that may cause you to go into cardiac arrest?

50 milliamperes or more

26
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Which statement is true regarding electrical arcing?

Objects do not have to contact the electricity source to create an arc

27
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What does non-ionizing radiation cause?

Damage of deep body tissues and organs

28
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When working on energized equipment, what is a good practice to perform?

Keep one hand in your pocket or behind your back

29
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What are the two types of fall protection?

Passive and Active

30
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Why do workers suspended in a full body harness often lose consciousness after a fall?

Restrictions in blood flow to extremities caused by the harness

31
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Which hazard is not an example of an environmental climbing hazard?

Corrosion

32
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What does a knot in a lanyard do to its overall strength?

Reduces strength by 50%

33
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Carabiners used in climbing should be rated to handle how many pounds?

5,000

34
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Joint publications provide guidance for military services to use while preparing what?

Appropriate joint operations plan

35
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What do allied communication publications do?

Standardize communication procedures for allied forces

36
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Who manages Air Force publications?

Air Force Publications and Forms Management Office

37
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What publications are usually written at a lower organizational level, such as the squadron and flight level?

Operating Instructions (OI)

38
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Where are Federal Aviation Administration (FAA) publications located?

Aeronautical Data Exchange (ADX) online

39
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What online system functions to acquire, improve, publish, catalog, manage, store, distribute and display official technical orders?

Enhanced Technical Information Management System (ETIMS)

40
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Using the Joint Electronics Type Designation System, what does "GRR" represent?

General Radio Receiver

41
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What technical order provides instructions on how to modify military systems or equipment?

Time Compliance Technical Order (TCTO)

42
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With a minimum of formal training time, what technical order serves as a manual of instruction in developing installation and maintenance proficiency?

Standard Installation Practices Technical Orders (SIPTO)

43
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Who is responsible for the civilian accreditation of the many industry standards used to develop the cyberspace support equipment the Air Force operates and maintains?

American National Standards Institute (ANSI)

44
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Why is military standardization beneficial to the Air Force?

Achieves Department of Defense interoperability , commonality, reliability, and compatibility with logistics systems

45
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What describes the essential technical requirements for purchased material that is military unique or substantially modified commercial items?

Military Specifications (Mil-Specs)

46
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What resource priority level (PL) is assigned to resources for which the loss, theft, destruction, misuse, or compromise would cause significant harm to the war-fighting capability of the United States?

PL2

47
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When an organization submits a security standard waiver request, what compensatory measures should be taken until fix actions occur?

Extra security patrols, new procedures, barricades, or additional locks

48
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Which is not a type of facility secured area?

Critical

49
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Where are basic input:output (BIOS) settings saved?

Complementary metal-oxide semiconductor (CMOS) memory

50
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What type of power supply is most commonly used in computers today?

Switching

51
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What was developed to enhance a computer's video subsystem because of the increased performance requirements in high-end PCs?

Accelerated Graphics Port (AGP)

52
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Why is it essential for critical information from hard disk drives ti be backed up or copied onto other media?

Disk drives are subject to mechanical failure

53
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What performa the functions of displaying the screen you see on a computer monitor?

Graphics/Video Card

54
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Which operating system (OS) is a clone of Unix?

Linux

55
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Which action is not a possible result of computer system damage originating from viruses?

Redirecting power supply voltages

56
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What is a common way malicious code can get into your system?

Clicking an e-mail link or attachment

57
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How many traditional Unix directories are there?

7

58
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What directory is the highest-level directory in the Unix file system?

root.

59
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What is considered the standard Unix editor?

vi.

60
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What layer of Open Systems Interconnect (OSI) model provides a variety of coding and conversion functions applied to application layer data?

Presentation.

61
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Which governing body is the authority for information technology (IT) communications within the Department of Defense (DOD)?

Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA)

62
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In positive acknowledgment, what does the sender do?

Keeps a record of each data packet sent and expects an acknowledgment

63
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Flow control methods prevent network congestion by doing what?

Ensuring transmitting devices do not overwhelm receiving devices with data

64
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Which connection protocol send out data packets to the receiving system and does not require a receipt acknowledgment?

Connectionless-oriented Communication

65
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User Datagram Protocol (UDP) is best for what type of transmission?

Sending small amounts of data where guaranteed delivery is jot required

66
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What is a basic communication language or protocol of the internet?

Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol (TCP/IP)

67
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What protocol enables Transmission Control Protocol/ Internet Protocol (TCP/IP) to Internetwork?

Internet Protocol (IP)

68
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In what octet of an Internet Protocol (IP) address can you identify the class of the address?

First

69
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Internet Protocol Version 6 (IPv6) addresses are how much larger then IPv4 addresses?

Four times larger

70
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What are the three types of IPv6 addresses

Unicast, multicast, and anycast

71
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When a client computer initiates contact with a server, what doess it use to request a particular service?

Port numbers

72
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What network type is essentially a private Internet for a company or organization?

Intranet

73
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What are Intranets that share a portion of their content with customers, suppliers, or other businesses, but not with the public?

Extranets

74
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A wide area network (WAN) connects networks that are typically separated by what?

Geographical distances

75
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What network topology consists of devices connected to a common or shared cable?

Bus

76
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What network topology consists of cabling segments from each computer connecting to a centralized component?

Star

77
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In what network topology does each workstation act as a repeater for a transmission?

Ring

78
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What device modulates signals to encode digital information and demodulates signals to decode the transmitted information?

Modem

79
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What device logically separates a single network into multiple segments or collision domains in Ethernet networks?

Bridge

80
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If a router does not know how to forward a packet, what does it do?

Drops the packet

81
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In what routing method does a network administrator program a router to use specific paths between nodes?

Static

82
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What term best describes when a sender locks transmitted information down with a secret combination, or key, and the receiver can unlock the information assuming they have the same key?

Encryption

83
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What could happen if you used the wrong type if radio-guide (RG) cable?

Equipment damage and or system failure

84
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What is the most common standard used for wireless networking?

Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE) 802.11

85
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What type of radar provides critical information to provide ample time to prepare or evacuate in response to natural disturbances?

Weather

86
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What does the "P" in GPN-30 designate?

Radar

87
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How many microseconds (us) does it take radio frequency (RF) to travel one radar mile?

12.36

88
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The time from one pulse to the next that the radar sends out is called

Pulse recurrence time (PRT).

89
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Which radar subassembly amplifies the weak, electromagnetic (EM) pulses returned from the reflecting object and reproduces them as video pulses?

Receiver

90
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What controls the radar pulse width (PW) by means of a rectangular direct current (DC)?

Modulator

91
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In addition to a flat top, what characteristics must a modulator pulse have?

Very steep leading edge and trailing edge

92
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What type of modulator is most commonly used in modern radar systems?

Line-pulsed

93
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What type of tube best meets the requirements of a modulator-switching element?

Thyratron

94
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If the magnetic field strength is too high on the magnetron, the magnetron will

Not oscillate

95
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The power gain of an antenna is the ratio of its radiated power to

Reference dipole

96
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Which pattern is usually specified and measured for a reciprocal antenna?

Transmit

97
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What is the most common reflector shape?

Paraboloid

98
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What do you call the use of contiguous beams stacked in elevation?

Stacked Beam radars

99
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What is an advantage of the individual pencil beams when handling rain clutter or chaff?

Limits the volume of space observed

100
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Which array is particularly useful in radar applications?

Two-dimensional planar