anatomy Puzzle Pieces

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Last updated 5:01 PM on 5/26/26
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202 Terms

1
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Leg is another word for lower limb and arm is another word for upper limb

False

2
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Appendicitis is an inflammation of the appendix? What physical exam technique is most useful for detecting rebound tenderness in this condition?

Palpation

3
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Pneumonia is an infection of the lung tissue. What technique involves listening to lung sounds to help diagnose this condition

Ausculation

4
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Hepatomegaly refers to enlargement of the liver. What physical exam technique involves tapping on the abdomen to assess liver size?

Percussion

5
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Jaundice is a yellowing of the skin and eyes due to elevated bilirubin. What technique involved visually identifying this condition?

Inspection

6
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Congestive heart failure can cause fluid buildup in the lungs. What technique allows detection of crackles in the lungs during examination?

Auscultation

7
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Which of following is a clear example of differentiation?

A stem cell developing into a neuron

8
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In a laparoscopic surgery, a camera is inserted to view abdominal organs. To display both the liver and stomach side-by-side on the monitor, the screen typically shoes images in which plane?

Transverse

9
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An MRI shows a vertical section dividing the body into left and right halves, with inflammation around the heart. What anatomical plane is visualized here?

Sagittal

10
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An MRI shows vertical section dividing the body into left and right halves, with inflammation around the heart. What membrane would be involved?

Pericardium

11
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An imaging study divides the body into front and back to show fluid around the lungs. What anatomical plane is visualized here?

Coronal

12
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An imaging study divides the body front to back and shows fluid around the lungs. What membrane would be involved?

Pleura

13
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During a laparoscopic procedure, a surgeon observes the membrane layer that lies directly against the surface of the small intestine. What layer of the serous membrane is being observed?

Visceral

14
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During a physical exam, a clinician notes that the liver is enlarged and extending significantly below the ribcage. Relative to the diaphragm, the liver is located:

Inferior

15
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The patellar region is _______ to the leg

Proximal

16
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The intestines are _____ to the liver

Caudal

17
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The metacarpals are ______ to the hallux

Cranial

18
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The larynx is shared between the digestive and the respiratory system

False

19
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The kidneys are part of the ____ system

Urinary

20
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What quadrant contains the spleen?

LUQ

21
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The majority of the small intestine is located in which quadrants?

LLQ and RLQ

22
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If osteoclast acitivty exceeds osteoblast activity, how will the mass of the bone be affected?

the bone would have an decreased mineral content and, as a result, it would also be weaker.

23
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In an adult, the epiphysis is separated from the diaphysis by _________.

the epiphyseal line.

24
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In teenagers, where is bone added to during endochondral ossification?

In the metaphysis, specifically in the side that is closer to the diaphysis of the bone.

25
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Estrogen is a hormone that aids in the absorption of calcium. When a woman reaches menopause, the production of estrogen is greatly reduced. Mary recently reached menopausal age and was advised to take a calcium supplement to reduce her risk of Osteoporosis. How can a menopause affect Mary's bones?

Osteoclasts will begin to break down calcium stored within the bone which can cause osteoporosis

26
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What component of the bone matrix gives it its toughness?

calcium phosphate

27
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Which bone feature is where one can find the olfactory nerve and what bone can it be found on?

Cribriform plate, ethmoid bone

28
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Which of these features is present in the sphenoid bone?

sella turcica

29
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Which two bones/bone features come together to form the nasal septum?

perpendicular plate and vomer

30
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The lambdoid suture joins the parietal bone to the:

occipital bone

31
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Scoliosis occurs from:

over-curvature laterally

32
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Which branch of anatomy is defined by the study of body structures that can be examined using unaided eye?

gross anatomy

33
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Which body cavity is formed by cranial bones?

cranial cavity

34
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The gallbladder belongs to which organ system?

digestive

35
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The fingers are ___________ to the wrist.

distal

36
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Which plane divides the body into superior (upper) and inferior (lower) portions?

transverse

37
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Most of the stomach is in the ____________.

 

left upper quadrant.

38
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Which term is used to define the fact that epithelia do not contain blood vessels?

avascularity

39
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The following are examples of connective tissue, except:

 

skeletal muscle

40
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Having a matrix is a characteristic of which type of tissue?

connective

41
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When epithelial cells are flat they are referred to as _____________ cells.

squamous

42
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The urinary bladder is an organ that due to its function is required to be constantly contracting and expanding (relaxing). Which type of surface epithelium would you expect to find in this organ?

 

transitional epithelium

43
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Anne has pale skin and goes to the beach. Instead of getting a tan, her skin gets red and maybe even burned. Why does that happen?

 

she produces less melanin

44
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In which layer of the skin are melanocytes located?

 

stratum basale

45
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How many layers of the dermis is present in thick skin?

2

46
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If a needle pokes your skin and results in instant bleeding, which skin layer has the needle reached?

papillary layer

47
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Most stem cells differentiate into keratinocytes in which skin layer?

stratum basale

48
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Layers of the epidermis from the deepest to most superficial are:

basale, spinosum, granulosum, corneum

49
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Which bone feature is where one can find the olfactory nerve and what bone can it be found on?

Cribriform plate, ethmoid bone

50
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Which of these features is present in the sphenoid bone?

sella turcica

51
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Which two bones/bone features come together to form the nasal septum?

perpendicular plate and vomer

52
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The lambdoid suture joins the parietal bone to the:

occipital bone

53
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Scoliosis occurs from:

 

over-curvature laterally

54
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Which two bone features compose the condyle of the humerus?

 

capitulum and trochlea

55
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Which carpal bone, based on its location, would articulate with the metacarpal of the thumb?

trapezium

56
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When the forearm is pronated, the shaft of the radius is ____________ to the shaft of the ulna.

anterior

57
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The bones that form the pectoral girdle are the:

clavicle and scapula

58
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The coronoid process articulates with the _________ of the humerus

 

coronoid fossa

59
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Which three bones form the coxal bone?

ischium, ilium, pubis

60
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The pubic symphysis unites which two bones?

 

right and left pubis

61
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Which bone has the linea aspera as one of the bone features?

femur

62
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The head of the fibula articulates with the:

 

proximal part of the tibia

63
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The head of the femur articulates with the:

acetabulum

64
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When the forearm is pronated, the radius is ____________ to the ulna.

anterior

65
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The synovial joint between the atlas and axis is a:

 

pivot joint

66
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What joint is considered biaxial?

 

metatarso-phalangeal joints

67
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The main function of a fibrous joint is to:

 

provide stability between two bones

68
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The ligament that runs from the posterior aspect of the femur towards the anterior aspect of the tibia is named: 

 

anterior cruciate ligament

69
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A type of tissue that covers body surfaces, lines internal organs and cavities, and form glands

Epithelial tissue

70
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Supports, binds, and protects other tissues and organs

Connective Tissue

71
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Produces movement by contracting

Muscle tissue

72
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Sends, receives, and processes electrical signals

Nervous tissue

73
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A patient arrives at the emergency room with severe dehydration after experiencing prolonged diarrhea. The physician notes that water is leaking from the intestinal lining into the gut. Which of the following cell junctions is most likely compromised, leading to this loss of barrier function between intestinal epithelial cells?

Tight Junctions

74
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A burn patient shows evidence of the epidermis detaching from the underlying dermis. Histological staining reveals a disruption in the junctions anchoring basal epithelial cells to the basement membrane. Which junction is most likely compromised?

Hemidesmosomes

75
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A researcher is studying the effects of a drug that disrupts actin filaments in epithelial tissues. After treatment, the epithelial cells lose their ability to maintain proper shape and coordinated movement, although their barrier function remains mostly intact. Microscopy shows that the cells are still attached at points of intermediate filament (keratin) connection. Which type of cell junction is most directly affected by the actin disruption?

Adherens Junctions

76
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Epithelial tissue is _____.

Avascular

77
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______ epithelium lines surfaces

Surface

78
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while ____ epithelium forms secreting portions of glands.

glandular

79
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Which type of epithelium is best suited for diffusion of gases in the alveoli of the lungs?

Simple squamous epithelium

80
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Which of the following epithelial types is multilayered and best suited to resist friction and abrasion, while allowing for a smooth surface, such as in the esophagus?

Stratified squamous epithelium

81
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Which epithelial type appears to be layered but all cells are attached to the basement membrane and is found in the trachea?

Pseudostratified columnar epithelium

82
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Which of the following is a defining characteristic of endocrine glands?

They are ductless and secrete hormones into the bloodstream

83
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Which of the following glands is an example of an exocrine gland?

Salivary gland

84
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A gland that releases its product via exocytosis without damaging the cell is known as a:

Merocrine gland

85
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Which gland releases its secretions by rupturing the entire cell, destroying it in the process?

Holocrine

86
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Which type of gland releases part of the cytoplasm along with the secretion?

Apocrine

87
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A patient complains of excessive sweating, particularly on the palms and forehead. You explain that the apocrine sweat glands are classified as:

Merocrine

88
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Flat large cells that move through connective tissue and secrete fibers and ground substance.

Fibroblasts

89
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Develop from monocytes and destroy bacteria and cell debris by phagocytosis.

Macrophages

90
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Store fats and are found below the skin and around organs.

Adipocytes

91
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White blood cells that migrate to sites of infection that destroy microbes by phagocytosis.

neutrophils

92
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White blood cells that migrate to sites of parasitic infection and allergic responses.

Eosinophils

93
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Develop from B lymphocytes and secrete antibodies that attack and neutralize foreign substances.

Plasma cells

94
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Abundant along blood vessels and produce histamine, which dilates blood vessels during inflammation and kill bacteria.

Mast cells

95
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Which connective tissue type contains widely spaced cells, loosely arranged fibers, and is found under epithelial layers to provide cushioning and support?

Loose areolar connective tissue

96
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A 50-year-old male with chronic joint pain has MRI findings showing damaged intervertebral discs. The tissue between his vertebrae is composed of strong collagen bundles designed to absorb compressive forces. Which connective tissue is most likely damaged?

Fibrocartilage

97
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Osteoblasts are the cells that form cartilage.

False

98
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The most abundant one and tough but flexible

Hyaline Cartilage

99
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Most elastic one due to the presence of rich elastic fibers and found in the external ear

Elastic cartilage

100
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Toughest one out of the three due to the presence of dense collage fibers

Fibrous cartilage