UCA Wainwright Spring 2022 Microbiology Test 3

Which agent of the immune system is acquired following first exposure?

(a) eosinophils

(b) macrophages

(c) mucous membranes

(d) antibodies

(e) skin

(d) antibodies

Leukocytes

(a) are white blood cells

(b) include complement

(c) are all phagocytes

(d) are found in the blood and in the lymph nodes

(e) a and d are correct

(e) a and d are correct

Antimicrobial proteins that are part of the innate immune system include

(a) lysozyme

(b) interferon

(c) complement

(d) gamma globulin

(e) only d is wrong

(e) only d is wrong

Which leukocyte is known for releasing histamine in response to allergen contact?

(a) basophils

(b) neutrophils

(c) macrophages

(d) T lymphocytes

(e) plasma cells

(a) basophils

Fever

(a) is a component of the innate immune response

(b) involves a re-setting of the blood temperature to a higher level

(c) may inhibit the reproduction of the infecting organism

(d) may increase the rate of enzyme facilitated reactions needed for recovery from the infection

(e) all of the above are correct

(e) all of the above are correct

Histamine release from basophils results in

(a) vasodilation

(b) swelling of tissue

(c)localized redness

(d) pain

(e) all are true

(e) all are true

Rubor, calor, tumor, and dolor

(a) are signs of inflammation

(b) are interleukins

(c) are antimicrobial proteins

(d) are synthesized in the liver

(e) b, c, and dare true

(a) are signs of inflammation

Two locations in the body for lymphocytes to complete development are

(a) brain and spinal cord

(b) bone marrow and thymus gland

(c) kidneys and liver

(d) heart and lungs

(e) skin and hair

(b) bone marrow and thymus gland

Antibodies are synthesized by which cell?

(a) monocytes

(b) T lymphocytes

(c) plasma cells

(d) red blood cells

(e) a and b are true

(c) plasma cells

Outcomes of antigen-antibody complex formation include

(a) anaphylaxis

(b) aplastic anemia

(c) resistance to bacitracin

(d) activation of complement

(e) all are correct

(d) activation of complement

Antibodies are

(a) proteins

(b) shaped like hot dog buns

(c) shaped like the letter Y

(d)molecule specific in what they attach to

(e) only b is wrong

(e) only b is wrong

Outcomes of complement activation include

(a) inflammation

(b) immune clearance

(c)opsonization of antigen and phagocytosis

(d) cytolysis of antigen

(e) all of the above

(e) all of the above

A person is immune to whooping cough after being vaccinated.

(a) this is naturally acquired, active immunity

(b) this is artificially acquired, active immunity

(c) this is naturally acquired, passive immunity

(d) this is artificially acquired, passive immunity

(e) this is passively acquired, artificial immunity

(b) this is artificially acquired, active immunity

An effective vaccine is currently available for which disease?

(a) gonorrhea

(b) Ebola

(c) HIV (AIDS)

(d) measles

(e) African Sleeping Sickness

(d) measles

Any agent that can cause disease is known as

(a) a fomite

(b) a vector

(c) a pathogen

(d) a reservoir

(e) a toxin

(c) a pathogen

An infection which has a gradual onset and remains for a long period of time is called

(a) an acute infection

(b) a chronic infection

(c) systemic infection

(d) a focal infection

(e) an opportunistic infection

(b) a chronic infection

Portals of microbial entry into the human body include

(a) the urinary tract

(b) the mouth

(c) the eyes

(d) the nose

(e) f is the best answer

(f) a, b, c, d, and e are true

(e) f is the best answer (aka all of them are true)

Which disease is transmitted to people by an insect vector?

(a) malaria

(b) toxoplasmosis

(c) hantavirus pulmonary syndrome

(d) gonorrhea

(e) influenza

(a) malaria

The insect vector of Onchocercus volvulus, which causes river blindness is

(a) the black fly

(b) anopheles mosquito

(c) the body louse

(d) the rat flea

(e) the red bug

(a) the black fly

A microbe is listed at Biological Safety Level 4.

(a) this means it is non pathogenic

(b) this means it is transmissible Only by contact with blood

(c) this means the person working with it must be clothed in a positive pressure (space) suit

(d) Mycobacterium leprae is an example of such a microbe

(e) this means the lab can be in any academic or health care building

(c) this means the person working with it must be clothed in a positive pressure (space) suit

The initial interview of a sick patient would not necessarily include a discussion of the patient's

(a) chief complaint

(b) social history

(c) interest in music

(d) family history

(e) occupation

(c) interest in music

Highly pathogenic but minimally virulent would describe

(a) rhinovirus (common cold)

(b) ebola virus (hemorrhagic fever)

(c) Staphylococcus epidermidis

(d) Mycobacterium tuberculosis

(e) Bacillus subtilis

(a) rhinovirus (common cold)

A microbe's ID 50 is catalogued as 10 microbes. This would suggest

(a) a person will die if exposed to 10 of these microbes

(b) a person could be exposed to 100 of these microbes but still show no signs of illness

(c) 50% people will get sick if exposed to 10 of these microbes

(d)the exposed person's immune system crashes if exposed to 10 of these microbes

(e) all of the above are true

(c) 50% people will get sick if exposed to 10 of these microbes

What must happen before a microbe can invade a living cell?

(a) the microbe must replicate itself

(b) the microbe must extract nutrients from the cell

(c) the microbe must attach to the surface of the cell

(d) the microbe must synthesize enzymes needed to escape the cell

(e) the person must fall asleep

(c) the microbe must attach to the surface of the cell

A reservoir of microbes

(a) is where the microbe can normally be found

(b) would include dirt

(c) is the location in the human body that allows the microbe to enter

(d) is the mechanism by which the microbe protects itself from the immune system of people

(e) a and b are correct

(e) a and b are correct

An infection is said to be transmissible by fomite. This means

(a) a person can contract the infection by kissing another person

(b) a person can contract the infection by touching a non-living surface

(c) the infection is spread by animal bite

(d) the infection can be picked up from the air

(e) only d is wrong

(b) a person can contract the infection by touching a non-living surface

Which phase of an infection is characterized by high fever, excessive coughing, congestion, and body aches?

(a) period of incubation

(b) prodromal period

(c) period of convalescence

(d) period of illness

(e) period of decline

(d) period of illness

A person is diagnosed with septicemia. This means

(a) the infection has become latent

(b) the infection is not serious

(c) the microbe is proliferating in the blood

(d) the microbe is being controlled by the immune system

(e) there is no chance of dissemination

(c) the microbe is proliferating in the blood

Herpes virus infections are known to remain latent in the human body. This means

(a) the person is not contagious

(b) the person has the infection, but is not experiencing exacerbations of illness at all times

(c) the virus is causing cancer

(d) the virus has become a viroid

(e) the infection can be diagnosed by lesions on the skin

(b) the person has the infection, but is not experiencing exacerbations of illness at all times

Infections such as syphilis and gonorrhea are transmitted through which portal of entry?

(a) eyes

(b) urinary tract of males

(c) reproductive tract of females

(d) mouth

(e) b and c are correct

(e) b and c are correct

A physician detects red spots on the skin, an abnormal heart rhythm, and blood in the urine of a patient.

(a) these are symptoms of illness

(b) these are signs of illness

(c) these are signs of convalescence

(d) these observations are of no diagnostic importance

(e) c and dare

(b) these are signs of illness

Which agent of the immune system is destroyed by HIV

(a) T helper Lymphocytes

(b)plasma cells

(c) macrophages

(d) thymus gland

(e) neutrophils

(a) T helper lymphocytes

The source of natural penicillin is

(a) soil dwelling bacteria

(b) a mold

(c) tree bark

(d) horse urine

(e) the foxglove plant

(b) a mold

The anti-bacterial action of penicillin is

(a) inhibit DNA replication

(b) inhibit peptidoglycan synthesis

(c) inhibit folate synthesis

(d) inhibit ergosterol synthesis

(a) both a and c are correct

(b) inhibit peptidoglycan synthesis

Antibiotics known as cephalosporins

(a) have a beta lactam ring

(b) are primarily effective against Gram positive bacteria

(c) may be allergenic to people who are also allergic to penicillin

(d) a, b, and c are true

(e) include Gentamicin

(d) a, b, and c are true

Which of the following antibiotics inhibits bacterial protein synthesis?

(a) Streptomycin

(b) Erythromycin

(c) Tetracycline

(d) Ciprofloxacin

(e) a, b, and c are correct

(e) a, b, and c are correct

The antibacterial action of sulfamethoxazole is

(a) destruction of cell membrane

(b) inhibits 70s protein synthesis

(c) inhibits mycolic acid synthesis

(d) inhibits photosynthesis.

(e) inhibits folate synthesis

(e) inhibits folate synthesis

Resistance to certain antibiotics is achieved by bacteria which synthesize

(a) beta lactamase

(b) oxidase

(c) catalase

(d) urease

(e) c and d are correct

(a) beta lactamase

Which medication would be useful in treating a systemic fungal infection?

(a) Acyclovir

(b) Amphotericin B

(a) Methicillin

(d) Mefloquine

(e) Praziquantel

(b) Amphotericin B

Extended spectrum penicillin compounds

(a) include Piperacillin

(b) may destroy normal flora bacteria

(c) may be allergenic to some people

(d) have a beta lactam ring

(e) all of the above are correct

(e) all of the above are correct

A person is diagnosed with amoebic dysentery. A reasonable treatment regimen might include

(a) Metronidazole

(b) Amantadine

(c) Valacyclovir

(d) Ethambutol

(e) Amoxicillin

(a) metronidazole

A person from central Africa is being treated with Hydroxychloroquine. A likely infection present would be

(a) syphilis

(b) malaria

(c) tuberculosis

(d) ringworm

(e) tapeworm

(b) malaria

Which drugs are used to treat tuberculosis?

(a) Nystatin

(b) Isoniazid

(c) Ethambutol

(d) Pyrazinamide

(e) only a is wrong

(e) only a is wrong

A person is infested with intestinal hook worms. A reasonable medication regimen would include

(a) Ganciclovir

(b) Mebendazole

(c) Ceftriaxone

(d) Sulfamethoxazole

(e) Itraconazole

(b) mebendazole

To effectively treat Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever

(a) Cephalexin works best

(b)Tetracycline or Chloramphenicol might be required

(c) any anti-viral drug would work

(d) Clotrimazole will destroy the yeast

(e) tick therapy is normally employed

(b) Tetracycline or Chloramphenicol might be required

Anti-influenza drugs include

(a) Amantadine

(b) Ticarcillin

(c) Cephalexin

(d) Griseofulvin

(e) Neomycin

(a) amantadine

Testing for the purpose of identifying Gram positive cocci included

(a) catalase test

(b) indole test

(c) SF test

(d) lactose fermentation test

(e) all of the above are correct

(e) all of the above

This Gram negative rod glows fluorescent green when grown in an EMB plate

(a) Serratia marcescens

(b) Escherichia coli

(c) Proteus vulgaris

(d) Klebsiella pneumonia

(e) Salmonella enteritidis

(b) escherichia coli

Two yeasts were studied in our lab.

(a) both are fungi

(b) both are eukaryotes

(c) both are pathogens

(d) both are unicellular

(e) only c is wrong.

(e) only c is wrong

Saccharomyces cerevisiae was used in our lab to ferment sucrose in grape juice. Products of this fermentation were

(a) carbon monoxide

(b) ethanol

(c) carbon dioxide

(d)carbon tetrachloride

(e) a and d are wrong

(e) a and d are wrong