Section 3: Compliance Program

0.0(0)
Studied by 0 people
call kaiCall Kai
learnLearn
examPractice Test
spaced repetitionSpaced Repetition
heart puzzleMatch
flashcardsFlashcards
GameKnowt Play
Card Sorting

1/118

encourage image

There's no tags or description

Looks like no tags are added yet.

Last updated 2:35 AM on 5/30/26
Name
Mastery
Learn
Test
Matching
Spaced
Call with Kai

No analytics yet

Send a link to your students to track their progress

119 Terms

1
New cards
What is a compliance program?
An internal AML and ATF framework required under the PCMLTFA
2
New cards
Why is a compliance program important?
It helps detect; prevent; and manage ML and TF risks
3
New cards
Who must implement a compliance program?
All reporting entities under the PCMLTFA
4
New cards
What does PCMLTFA stand for?
Proceeds of Crime Money Laundering and Terrorist Financing Act
5
New cards
How many core elements are in a compliance program?
Six
6
New cards
Who is responsible for implementing the compliance program?
The Compliance Officer
7
New cards
What must a Compliance Officer have?
Authority and resources to perform their duties
8
New cards
Who should the Compliance Officer report to?
Senior management; board; owner; or chief operator
9
New cards
What must compliance policies and procedures include?
Reporting; record keeping; client identification; risk assessment; and mitigation
10
New cards
Who must approve policies and procedures?
A senior officer
11
New cards
What should policies include regarding terrorist financing?
Watchlist verification and Ministerial Directives processes
12
New cards
What is the purpose of a training program?
To ensure ongoing AML and ATF training
13
New cards
Who must receive compliance training?
Employees; agents; mandataries; and authorized representatives
14
New cards
What is a training plan?
Documented process for delivering and maintaining training
15
New cards
How often must effectiveness reviews occur?
At least every two years
16
New cards
What should an effectiveness review assess?
Policies; procedures; risk assessment; mitigation; and training effectiveness
17
New cards
Who should conduct the effectiveness review?
Someone not directly involved in compliance activities
18
New cards
When must review findings be reported?
Within 30 days of review completion
19
New cards
What must be included in the review report?
Findings; updates; mitigation measures; and implementation status
20
New cards
What factors are included in a risk assessment?
Clients; geography; products; services; affiliates; and technology
21
New cards
What is risk mitigation?
Measures used to reduce identified ML and TF risks
22
New cards
What are the two mandates of a compliance program?
Operational framework and employee understanding
23
New cards
What is legal risk?
Loss from non-compliance or unenforceable contracts
24
New cards
What is reputational risk?
Loss caused by negative publicity or reduced trust
25
New cards
What is operational risk?
Loss from weak procedures; systems; or personnel
26
New cards
What authority does FINTRAC have under the PCMLTFA?
To examine records and inquire into business affairs
27
New cards
What types of FINTRAC examinations exist?
Desk-based and on-site examinations
28
New cards
What can happen if documentation is created after a FINTRAC notice?
It may result in deficiencies or violations
29
New cards
What can FINTRAC issue for non-compliance?
AMPs or criminal charges
30
New cards
Can AMPs and criminal charges apply to the same violation?
No
31
New cards
What does AMP stand for?
Administrative Monetary Penalty
32
New cards
What is the purpose of AMPs?
To encourage compliance rather than punish
33
New cards
What factors determine AMP amounts?
Harm done; ability to pay; and compliance objectives
34
New cards
When did mandatory AMP publication begin?
June 21; 2019
35
New cards
How are violations classified under the AMP regime?
Minor; serious; or very serious
36
New cards
What is a Ministerial Directive?
A legally enforceable compliance directive under the PCMLTFA
37
New cards
Can failure to follow a Ministerial Directive lead to penalties?
Yes; including AMPs and criminal offences
38
New cards
What is a criminal offence under subsection 74(1)?
Failure to register; verify identity; or keep records
39
New cards
What does subsection 75(1) address?
Suspicious transaction reporting offences
40
New cards
What does subsection 77(1) address?
EFT; large cash; VC; and casino reporting offences
41
New cards
What is Section 77.1 related to?
False or misleading MSB registration information
42
New cards
What is the maximum criminal fine on indictment under the PCMLTFA?
Up to $2 million
43
New cards
What is the maximum imprisonment term on indictment?
Up to 5 years
44
New cards
What is the penalty for failing to report suspicious transactions?
Up to $2 million and or 5 years imprisonment
45
New cards
What is the penalty for disclosing an STR?
Up to 2 years imprisonment
46
New cards
What does FINTRAC share through MOUs?
Compliance-related information with regulators
47
New cards
Do regulators conduct FINTRAC examinations?
No; FINTRAC retains examination authority
48
New cards
What international groups does FINTRAC work with?
FATF and the Egmont Group
49
New cards
Why is international cooperation important in AML and ATF?
ML and TF often cross national borders
50
New cards
How many international MOUs has FINTRAC signed?
More than 100
51
New cards
What are the six elements of a compliance program?
Compliance Officer; policies; training; training plan; review; and risk assessment
52
New cards
What is the primary responsibility of a Compliance Officer?
To implement and oversee the compliance program
53
New cards
Does appointing a Compliance Officer alone satisfy compliance requirements?
No; all compliance program elements must be implemented
54
New cards
What must a Compliance Officer understand about the business?
Its functions; structure; and operations
55
New cards
What ML and TF knowledge should a Compliance Officer possess?
Risks; vulnerabilities; trends; and typologies
56
New cards
What legal knowledge should a Compliance Officer have?
PCMLTFA and associated Regulations requirements
57
New cards
What factors should be considered when appointing a Compliance Officer?
Independence; seniority; accountability; reporting lines; and experience
58
New cards
Who remains responsible for compliance obligations?
The reporting entity
59
New cards
What authority should a Compliance Officer have?
Authority to implement changes and access resources
60
New cards
Who should a Compliance Officer report to?
Board; senior management; owner; or chief operator
61
New cards
Who may serve as Compliance Officer in a small business?
A senior manager or the owner
62
New cards
Can an individual appoint themselves as Compliance Officer?
Yes
63
New cards
Who should be appointed Compliance Officer in a large organization?
A senior-level individual with executive access
64
New cards
Should a Compliance Officer in a large organization handle funds directly?
No; as a governance best practice
65
New cards
Can a Compliance Officer delegate duties?
Yes; but responsibility remains with the Compliance Officer
66
New cards
What is the Compliance Officer's relationship with FINTRAC?
Primary contact between the organization and FINTRAC
67
New cards
What training responsibility does a Compliance Officer have?
Ensure staff receive AML and ATF training
68
New cards
What review responsibility does a Compliance Officer have?
Organize independent effectiveness reviews
69
New cards
What culture responsibility does a Compliance Officer have?
Promote a culture of compliance
70
New cards
What should policies and procedures be?
Written; maintained; and approved by a senior officer
71
New cards
What is the purpose of AML and ATF policies?
Establish compliance standards and expectations
72
New cards
What is the purpose of AML and ATF procedures?
Describe how policies are carried out in practice
73
New cards
Who must approve compliance policies and procedures?
A senior officer
74
New cards
What should policies establish throughout the organization?
Clear and definitive compliance requirements
75
New cards
What should procedures clearly identify?
What; who; when; and where actions occur
76
New cards
Why must procedures be updated regularly?
To reflect regulatory and business changes
77
New cards
What are procedures used to do?
Translate policies into operational actions
78
New cards
What compliance program activities should policies cover?
Risk assessment; training; and effectiveness reviews
79
New cards
What client identification topics should policies cover?
Identity verification; beneficial ownership; and PEP requirements
80
New cards
What does PEP stand for?
Politically Exposed Person
81
New cards
What ongoing monitoring requirements should policies address?
Business relationships and high-risk clients
82
New cards
What enhanced measures may be required for high-risk clients?
Additional verification and monitoring
83
New cards
What record-keeping requirements should policies address?
Client; account; and transaction records
84
New cards
How quickly must records be provided to FINTRAC when requested?
Within 30 days
85
New cards
What reports should policies address?
All required FINTRAC reporting obligations
86
New cards
What is an STR?
Suspicious Transaction Report
87
New cards
What is an LCTR?
Large Cash Transaction Report
88
New cards
What is an EFT report?
Electronic Funds Transfer Report
89
New cards
What is an LVCTR?
Large Virtual Currency Transaction Report
90
New cards
What is the travel rule?
Requirement to include prescribed information with transfers
91
New cards
When might a transfer be suspended or rejected?
When required travel rule information is missing
92
New cards
What is a Ministerial Directive?
A targeted measure issued by the Minister of Finance
93
New cards
Why are Ministerial Directives issued?
To protect Canada's financial system from ML and TF risks
94
New cards
Must organizations have a separate Ministerial Directive policy?
No; it can be incorporated into existing procedures
95
New cards
What may happen if Ministerial Directives are not followed?
Administrative penalties may apply
96
New cards
What is the maximum AMP mentioned for failing to comply with a directive?
Up to $500000
97
New cards
What should policies explain about Ministerial Directives?
How to identify them and what actions to take
98
New cards
What is publicly available information?
Information from regulators; law enforcement; and credible media sources
99
New cards
How is publicly available information used?
Risk assessment; monitoring; and STR processes
100
New cards
What does FINTRAC expect when concerning public information is discovered?
Reasonable action and documented decisions