Garrick T-6 Systems GK (USEM)

What kind of engine does the T-6 have and where can you find this information?

1. Pratt and Whitney PT6A-68 Free-turbine, reverse flow, turbo-prop

2. 1T-6A, section 1.5

What is the maximum gross takeoff weight for the T-6?

6,500 lbs

How much shaft horsepower does the T-6 engine produce?

1,110 shaft horsepower (SHP)

What is the capacity of the oil system (be careful not to mistake the oil system for the hydraulic system)?

18.5 quarts

What systems does the oil system provide lubrication to?

1. Engine bearings

2. Reduction gear box

3. Accessory drives

4. Propeller

What are the components of the Oil system

1. Pressure system

2. Scavenge system

3. Cooling system

4. Breather system

How soon after engine shutdown must the oil level be serviced? When is is recommended you check the oil for most accurate results?

1. 30 minutes after engine shutdown

2. 15-20 minutes

When checking the oil level, is it ever sufficient to just use the sight glass to determine the level?

No, the only means of determining the correct oil level indication is to use the oil dipstick.

What is the wingspan of the T-6?

33 feet and 5 inches

What is the length of the T-6?

33 feet and 4 inches

What is the diameter of the four-blade Hartzell propeller?

97 inches

In the event of a blocked main oil filter, is it true to say that the oil will no longer properly flow through the system?

No, if the main oil filter is ever blocked, unfiltered oil will bypass the filter through a bypass valve.

The Engine Data Manger (EDM) passes oil pressure to what computer that ultimately provides the means to illuminate the CWD annunciator?

Signal Conditioning Unit (SCU)

If dealing with a failed SCU, what indicators might be expected?

Both red and amber oil PX annuciators while the oil pressure gauge indicates normal pressure parameters.

At what speed (RPM) does the power turbine operate at and what RPM does the reduction gearbox "shift down" the propeller to?

1. 30,000 RPM

2. 2,000 RPM

Where is the reduction gearbox located? (Hint: its some where near the engine and prop)

Up at the very front of the engine... obvi

Where is the chip detector located? (Hint: somewhere that cares a lot about grinding its gears)

Reduction gearbox

Because the engine is flat rated, 100% torque is available to what altitude range on a standard day?

Sea Level to 12,000-16,000 MSL (give or take that density altitude my guy)

On a standard day, how many pounds of thrust does the T-6 produce at sea level and zero airspeed?

2,750 pounds of thrust (.42 thrust to weight ratio for you nerds out here)

When feathered, relative to the wind, how are the props angled?

straight into the wind or parallel with the wind

Np measures the percent RPM the prop is sustaining at a given time, what changes to ensure that its at 100% and at what RPM is considered 100%?

1. The pitch of the prob blades

2. 2,000 RPM

What computer controls the prop pitch and how does it do it?

1. Propeller interface unit (PIU)

2. It does so by varying the amount of oil pressure used to change the pitch of the blades that either increases or decreases the bite of air what props take.

With the PMU functioning, the mechanical overspeed governor limits the Np below what percent?

106%, anything more than this is indicative of an overspeed failure

The electronic governor will maintain Np at what percentage with the PMU functioning?

100%

If the PMU fails, what ensures that Np doesn't sustain an overspeed, and what is the percent range?

1. The mechanical flyweight overspeed governor

2. 100% +-2%

In the event of an engine failure, does the propeller fully feather by moving the PCL to idle?

No, the prop will begin to feather but the PCL must be placed to cutoff for it to fully feathered. The PMU will manage this if the engine is shutdown with the PCL but if the PMU fails, PCL cutoff also suffices by activating microswitches that dump the oil pressure.

Where does the feather dump solenoid valve receive its power from?

The Prop SYS circuit breaker on the battery bus cicuirt breaker panel.

What are the three positions of the Starter Switch

1. AUTO/RESET

2. NORM

3. MANUAL

What are the two positions of the Ignition Switch?

1. NORM

2. ON

How is the PCL connected to the FMU (Fuel Management Unit)

electronically and mechanically

1. Electronically by means of the PMU that does the regulating of the FMU but if the PMU fails, the mechanical inputs by the pilot become the primary means of regulating the FMU for fuel delivery.

What is the EDM?

It is the Engine Data Manager, used to monitor the engine operating parameters and initiates the proper annunciators when necessary regarding such engine operations. It also manages non-engine functions such as fuel balancing, fuel quantity/indication and determination of the display DC volts, amps, hydraulic pressure, cockpit pressure altitude, and the pressure differential.

True/False: During ground operations, if the PCL is inadvertently moved to cutoff and the engine is shut down, attempt to relight the engine by moving the PCL to idle.

False: This may result in severe engine damage

What information does the PEDD provide?

1. N1

2. ITT

3. Torque

4. Np

5. IOAT

True/False: all the data displayed on the PEDD is processed through the PMU?

True (not the case for the AEDD though...)

What information does the AEDD provide?

1. Fuel Quanity - EDM

2. Raw ITT (RITT) - not processed through the PMU

3. Alternate Torque - this is the only thing processed by the PMU - EDM

4. Cockpit Pressure Altitude - EDM

5. Cockpit Pressure Differential - EDM

6. Alternate Np - EDM

7. Fuel Flow - EDM

What information does the Engine System Display (ESD) provide?

1. Hydraulic Pressure

2. Oil Temperautre

3. Oil Pressure

4. Volts (VDC)

5. Amps (DC)

What powers the PMU and where is it located?

1. The Permanent Magnet Alternator (PMA)

2. Mounted on the reduction gearbox

How many Volts does the PMA supply?

32 VAC (volts alternating current)

The PMU switches to the battery bus when the propeller RPM drops below what Np?

40-50% Np

Above 10,000 feet PA, the PMU raises N1 to maintain what percentage of Np to avoid stress on the prop during spins?

80% Np (hence why we don't do spins below 10,000 feet PA)

The PMU AutoStart procedure will automatically terminate the ground start sequence if light-off has not occurred within how many seconds of selecting AUTO/RESET?

10 seconds

On engine start, if the IOAT is greater than 96 but less than 121 degrees Celsius, the PMU will default to what temperature for all functions?

121 deg Celsius

At what IOAT will the PMU go offline?

121 deg Celsius

How long will the ST READY annunciator remain illuminated if it was activated even if the PCL is moved out of the auto start position?

3 seconds

True/False: If the ST READY annunciator is not illuminated during engine start, auto start protection is not provided

True

At approx what percent N1 does the PMU deactivate the igniters and boost pump (if fuel is above 10 psi)?

50% N1

True/False: The PMU provides engine protection during airstarts?

False: the pilot must monitor all parameters and abort the start manually if necessary.

Illumination of both the PMU FAIL and PMU STATUS annunciators indicate the PMU is in what mode?

MANUAL mode

If issues with the PMU that aren't serious enough to revert the system to manual are encountered in flight, the PMU STATUS will illuminate how many minutes after landing?

1 minute

What does a PMU STATUS light in flight indicate?

A fault in either of the weight-on-wheels switches. N1 will not sift from flight idle to ground idle and landing distance may be slightly longer than normal.

What kind of gases does the fire warning system contain and where are they located?

1. Hydrogen in the core element (for localized heat)

2. Helium in the are outside of the core

True/False: Flattening, twisting, kinking/denting of the fire warning loop will affect test or flight operation?

False

What does the pulling of the firewall shutoff handle cut off?

1. Fuel TO the engine

2. Hydraulic fluid TO the engine

3. Bleed air FROM the engine

True/False: The firewall shutoff valve may be reset by pushing the handle down?

True

The fuel system provides how many pounds of usable fuel through the single point refueling system?

1,100 lbs

How many more pounds of fuel an be added through over-the-wing refueling?

100 lbs

When does the fuel auto system kick in and start closing motive flow from the light tank?

If there is an imbalance for more than 20 lbs or more for at least 30 seconds

The auto balance system will shut off ad the FUEL BAL annuciator will illuminate if the system cannot maintain a balance of what?

30 lbs for at least 2 minutes

What are the six annunciators related to the fuel system?

1. FUEL PX (Red)

2. BOOSE PUMP (Green)

3. L/R FUEL LO (Amber)

4. FUEL BAL (Amber)

5. M FUEL BAL (Green)

True/False: Do not attempt to manual fuel balance the fuel load if AEDD is indicating FP FAIL

True

How many fuel probes are there (excluding the optical fuel probes)?

Seven: three in each wing tank, one in the collector

What are the readings of each of the wing fuel probes?

1. Outer - 445 +- 50lbs

2. Middle - 308 +- 50lbs

3. Inner - Until ~ 20lbs

True/False: Automatic fuel balancing is shut off with an FP FAIL?

True

True/False: With an FP FAIL, low fuel warning lights will not provide an accurate indication of minimum fuel level?

False: The low fuel warning lights are based on the optical sensors which are independent of the main fuel quantity indicating system (110 lbs each)

The weighted rod in the pickup valve provides a minimum of how many seconds of fuel regardless of orientation? (this is also called the flip-flop valve)

60 seconds

Are restarts possible with both an engine-driving low-pressure fuel pump and boost pump failure?

No, you'll need that boost pump to get the system going... its provocative...

What are the Volts/Amps of the start/generator?

28 VDC and 300 amps

What are the volts/amps of the main battery?

24 VDC, 42 amp-hours

What are the volt/amps of the auxiliary battery?

24 VDC, 5 amp-hours

True/False: The GEN switch can be in the on position in both cockpits?

False (They are electrically interlocked and will switch off if the other cockpit switches to the on position)

What is the only item automatically shed when the GEN annunciator illuminates?

A/C

Test the AUX BAT by holding the test switch for a minimum of how many seconds?

5 seconds

What is on the auxiliary battery bus? (dash - 1)

1. Standby instruments

2. Lighting for standby instruments

3. UHF transceiver and backup UHF control

4. Fire 1 fire warning system

How long will the auxiliary batter power the items on the AUX BAT buss?

~30 minutes

What items are on the hot battery bus?

1. Battery switch

2. ELT

3. FDR MAINT

4. OBOGS

5. RAM air valve

6. Emergency flaps

7. Clocks

Do not connect external battery power if battery is below what voltage?

22.0 Volts

Of the bus tie fails, or is set to OPEN, which annunciator will illuminate?

BUS TIE (AMBER)

Expect a minimum of how many minutes of battery power to the battery bus items with the bus tie open (not being charged)?

30 minutes

True/False: The brake system is a part of the aircraft hydraulic system?

False: (it is a non-boosted mechanically actuated, hydraulically operated system (just like you car brakes) independent of the aircraft hydraulic system)

(you can still use your brakes if you lose hydraulic pressure)

What cockpit determines the amount of braking being used?

Whichever pilot is applying the most pedal force

What is the capacity of the hydraulic system? (units of volume)

5 quarts (freedom units...)

When does the hydraulic system pressure relief valve open?

3,250-3,500 psi (it is not pressurized to this, it simply starts bleeding off if these pressures are for some reason or another reached)

What is the pressure of the normal hydraulic system?

3,000 psi +- 120 psi

What is the pressure of the emergency hydraulic system?

3,000 psi +- 120 psi (not a typo, recall when the release valve is meant to bleed off from)

At what minimum psi can the hydraulic power the landing gear, main gear doors, flaps, speed brake, and nose wheel steering?

1,800 psi (after that, no guarantee of actuation)

When will the amber HYDR FL LO annunicator illuminate?

When the hydraulic reservoir level has dropped below ~1 quart (freedom units...America)

When you check the hydraulic fluid level in the indicator window, the green indicator should be in what ranges?

Within in the FULL AC (accumulator charged) and FULL AD (accumulator discharged) bands

True/False: The EHYD PX LO sensor will still be available with the HYD SYS circuit breaker popped/open.

True

When does the amber EHYD PX LO annunciator illuminate?

When pressure drops below 2,400 +- 150 psi

True/False: If the emergency accumulator is discharged, the EHYD PX LO annunciator will remain illuminated until the system pressurizes?

True (this may be the case on initial engine startup)

What does the green gear light indicate?

The gear is down and locked

True/False: During normal use, the inboard main landing gear doors close when all 3 landing gears are fully down and locked?

True (not the case during use of the EMER LDG GR handle... lol)

True/False: Pressing the LAMP TEST switch will test the gear handle and indicator light in both cockpits.

False: (it will only test the gear handle and indicator lights in the respective cockpit.)

A normal gear extension/retraction sequence takes approx how long?

~6 seconds

True/False: Electrical power is required to use the emergency gear extension system?

False: (electrical power is not required to use the emergency gear extension system (main battery power is required for extension of the emergency flaps!)

What are the three situations in which the landing gear position warning will activate?

1. Gear handle not down (regardless of gear indications), PCL below mid-range position, airspeed below 120 KIAS and flaps up/takeoff

2. All gears not indicating down and locked with flaps LDG (regardless of gear door position, power setting, or airspeed)

3. Weight on wheels with the gear handle not down (you deployed the EMER LDG GR handle, landed, and the main gear handle is still up)

What king of flaps does the T-6 have?

Hydraulically operated, electrically controlled, four-segment split flaps

True/False: The flap position cannot be visually verified from either cockpit.

True (gotta use that feel and understand aerodynamic characteristics of flap employment!)

What is the deflection of the flaps TO in degrees (relative to wing chord)? What about LDG flaps?

1. TO = 23 degrees

2. LDG = 50 degrees

True/False: Emergency flap operation is still available when the auxiliary battery is the only source of electrical power?

False (need that main battery to have a charge)