MMSC 409 exam 1

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Last updated 2:59 PM on 4/4/26
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165 Terms

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immunohematology

the study of the immune aspects of hematology to provide safe therapeutic blood products to patients

-antigens, antibodies, agglutination, hemolysis and blood groups

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antigen (Ag)

a substance that is recognized by the body as being foreign, which causes an immune response

-in blood banking Ags are mainly (but not exclusively found on the RBC membrane

-the reaction of Abs against foreign Ags in transfused blood is a common cause of transfusion reactions

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antibody (Ab)

a protein substance that is secreted by plasma cells in response to an antigen

-Abs will only respond to the Ag that they are sensitized against

-Abs are found in the serum

-commerical Abs can be used for lab testing

-donated blood needs to be screened for Abs that will cause an attack of recipient cells

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hemolysis

the disruption of the RBC membrane, causing release of hemoglobin into the plasma

-lysis of RBCs

-immunological transfusion reactions in the body can cause this process to occur

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agglutination

the clumping of RBCs (or other particulate) due to interaction of antibodies with their corresponding antigen

-clumping that is caused by the interaction of antibodies

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accuracy in blood banking

it is important that testing in blood banks and transfusion labs are 100% accurate to avoid severe transfusion reactions due to incompatability

-donated blood units need to be typed properly to ensure they are given to the right patient

-recipients need to be typed properly to ensure they recieve the correct units of blood

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blood test at donor collection facility

-ABO and Rh typing

-infectious disease testing: syphillis, hepatitis B & C, AIDS/HIV, HTLV I & II, west nile virus, Chagas disease (T. cruzi)

-ABO and Rh types reconfirmed

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blood test at transfusion center

-reconfirmation of ABO type (make sure it matches the label)

-pre-transfusion testing on patient: ABO, Rh type, antibody screen, crossmatch

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American Red Cross (ARC)

provides many benefits to members

-disaster relief

-rare donor registry (find rare blood types)

-reference alb services

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Food and Drug Administration (FDA)

regulates all blood component manufacturers, distributors and medical laboratories in the US

-provides licensure to all blood collection centers, and approves all methods and products used for blood collection

-blood and blood products are pharmaceutricals and biologics

-center for biological evaluation and research (CBER) functions under them to control blood collection and manufacturing of pharmacueticals

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AABB

-write stands that blood collection centers and transfusion centers must follow for testing

-voluntary accreditation of either people or facilities

-writes technical manuals

-ensures that standards for CMS (medicare and medicaid) are met

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college of American pathologists (CAP)

-voluntary accreditation of clinical laboratories

-administer proficiency testing for clinical laboratories

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Joint Comission

offer voluntary inspection and accreditation of institutions or specific units within an institution

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past blood banking issues

-multiple blood groups: even with knowing about ABO there were still transfusion reactions going on that lead to discovery of other blood groups

-circulatory overload: people who only needed 1 component of blood were given whole blood that gave an overload of cells and volume, leading to production of apheresed products

-blood storage and expiration: blood that was collected would expire really quickly so research was need to figure out what would extend the shelf life

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RBC membrane

-phospholipid bilayer containing glycolipids and immunoproteins

-semipermeable

-integral proteins extend from the outside through the bilyaer and into the cytoplasm

-peripheral proteins are present on internal side of the bilayer forming the cytoskeleton

-protein cytoskeleton is a mesh that supports the bilayer

-spectrin is present in cytoskeleton and promotes flexibility of the RBC

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spectrin

an important protein the cytoskeleton of RBCs that is phosphorylated by ATP so that the cell remains flexible

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deformability

flexibility of the RBC membrane

-spectrin proteins are responsible for keeping RBC flexible

-RBCs need to be flexible so they are able to pass through small blood vessels

-RBCs that lose this ability (low ATP= nonfunctional spectrin) will be broken down in the spleen

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permeability

ability of molecules to pass in and out of the RBC membrane to maintain Na+ and K+ concentrations

-ATP powered pumps transport K+ into the cell and Na+ out of the cell

-if ions become imbalanced (low ATP=non functional pumps) the cells become dehydrated and rigid and are removed from circulation

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hemoglobin

protein in RBCs composed of 2 alpha chains and 2 beta chains that is responsible for gas exchange

-carries O2 to tissues

-when B chains spread apart it allows 2,3 DPG to bind and causes release of O2 from the protein and into the tissues

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oxygen dissociation curve

a graph that associates the % saturation of oxygen on the hemoglobin molecule with a particular pressure of O2

-the % of oxygen that is being released into tissues is equal to 100% minus the % oxygenation of hemoglobin (the amount of O2 the hemoglobin holds on to)

<p>a graph that associates the % saturation of oxygen on the hemoglobin molecule with a particular pressure of O2</p><p>-the % of oxygen that is being released into tissues is equal to 100% minus the % oxygenation of hemoglobin (the amount of O2 the hemoglobin holds on to)</p>
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2,3 DPG

a molecule that binds to the beta chains of oxyhemoglobin and forces the oxygen on the hemoglobin to be released into tissues

-high concentrations will increase O2 delivery to tissues

-low concentrations will decrease O2 delivery to tissues (increased O2 carrying capacity of hemoglobin)

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right shift

MORE oxygen delivery to tissues

-hemoglobin is more weakly bound to O2 (decreased oxygen carrying capacity)

-high temperatures

-high 2,3 DPG

-low pH (acidic)

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left shift

LESS oxygen delivery to tissues

-hemoglobin is more strongly bonded to oxygen (increased oxygen carrying capacity)

-low temp

-low 2,3 DPG

-high pH (basic)

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left (fill in the blank)

stored blood can undergo a (left or right) shift of the oxygen dissociation curve due to the fact that 2,3 DPG has been depleted during storage

-causes decreased delivery of oxygen to tissues

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additive solutions

additive solutions are used with RBCs to keep them viable after they have been removed from plasma and offer other benefits

-longer shelf life: provide nutrients so RBCs are able to survive longer

-production of more products: removing RBCs from whole blood and storing them in solution makes it possible for platelets and plasma to be used as separate therapies

-easier transfusions: RBCs that are in solution instead of plasma is less viscous and easier to transfuse than whole blood

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anticoagulant

additive that is used to store RBCs and prevent clotting

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ACD-A, CPD, CP2D

anticoagulants that are used for storage of RBCs in whole blood

-contain citrate, monobasic sodium phosphate and dextrose

-expiration: 21 days

-store at 1-6 C

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citrate (sodium citrate or citric acid)

an ingredient of anticoagulants which chelates calcium to prevent clotting

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monobasic sodium phosphate

a buffer that is present in anticoagulants to maintain storage levels of 2,3 DPG so that stored RBCs maintain their ability to deliver oxygen

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dextrose

an energy substrate that is present in anticoagulants to provide a substrate for glycolysis so stored RBCs maintain ATP production (remain flexible and able to maintain electrolyte concentrations)

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CPDA-1

anticoagulant solution used to store RBCs in whole blood for extended time

-contains sodium citrate, monobasic sodium phosphate and dextrose

-expiration: 35 days (increased time is a big benefit)

-storage 1-6 C

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adenine

an additive to anticoagulant solutions that allows for increased production of ATP in stored RBCs

-allows for longer storage times

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AS-1, AS-5, AS-7

additive solutions used to store RBCs

-contains mannitol, saline, adenine and glucose

-expiration 42 days

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mannitol

additive solution ingredient that protects against hemolysis in stored RBCs

-present in AS-1, AS-5 and AS-7

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AS-3

additive solution that is used for storage of RBCs

-contains citrate & phosphate, saline, adenine and glucose

-expiration: 42 days

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citrate and phosphate

2 ingredients that are used together to prevent hemolysis of RBCs in additive solution

-used in AS-3

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storage lesion

a loss of viability and function due to biochemical changes that occur in stored blood

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storage lesion (RBCs)

-% of viable cells decrease

-glucose and ATP decrease

-lactic acid increases, leading to more acidic pH

-2,3 DPG decreases, leading to left shift in O2 dissociation curve (less oxygen delivery to tissues)

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RBC lifespan

120 days

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fetal (fill in the blank)

________ hemoglobin has a higher affinity for O2 than adult hemoglobin

-this means that it binds O2 more stably, and does not release it into tissues as easily

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expiration of whole blood

35 days

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methemoglobin

hemoglobin that is in the ferric state and can no longer carry O2

-undergoes methemoglobin reductase pathway to go back to ferrous state an be able to carry oxygen again

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donor interview

is conducted to promote the safety of the donor and the recipient

-history and personal info screening are taken via UDHQ (uniform donor history and ID verification)

-ID of the donor is obtained

-required educational info provided to donor

-physical exam is given (general appearance, BP, HR, Hgb/ Hct)

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weight for heterologous donation

110 lb

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temperature for heterologous donation

37.5 C / 99.5 F or lower

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pulse for heterologous donation

50-100 BPM

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blood pressure for heterologous donation

180/100 or lower

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hemoglobin (Hgb) for heterologous donation

-male: 13 g/dL or higher

-female: 12.5 g/dL or higher

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hematocrit (HCT) for heterologous donation

38% or higher

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questions to protect donor

-time period since last donation

-past deferral for reasons of their own health (vitals out of range that would endanger their health)

-health history: surgery in the last 12 months, history of heart/lung/ liver disease, history of cancer, abnormal bleeding tendencies, unexplained weight loss

-medications: drugs, meds, antibiotics, aspirin in the last 3 days

-pregnancy in the last 6 weeks/ ever

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questions to protect recipient

-permanent deferrals

-indefinite/ permanent deferrals

-temporary deferrals

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permanent deferral

confirmed HBsAg test (confirmed hepatitis B)

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indefinite/ permanent deferral

-hepatits or AIDS

-antibodies to hepatitis B (anti-HBc)

-hepatitis C infection

-tests positive for HIV, HCV, HTLV or T. cruzi

-previous donation that gave recipient hepatitis or AIDS

-sexual risk of AIDS (sex workers, gay men)

-IV drug abuse

-CJD risk factors (brain tissue transplant, use of bovine insulin, receive HGH)

-parasitic infections (babesiosis, Chagas disease, Leishmaniasis)

-leukemia or other cancers

-Tegison medication (causes birth defects)

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5 year deferral

cancer in the last 5 years

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3 year deferral

-malaria

-immigrant from malaria endemic country

-acitretin (causes birth defects)

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12 month deferral

-recipient of blood/ blood products/ clotting factors

-close contact with viral hepatitis or AIDS

-sexual partner of someone on permanent deferral

-inmate of prison/ mental institution

-needlestick exposure

-HbIG recipient (given in cases where HBV is a high risk)

-piercings/ tattoo

-accupuncture

-treatment for syphilis or gonorrhea

-travel to malaria endemic country

-rabies shot

-transplant or graft recipient

-cocaine use

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4 week deferral

-german measles (rubella) immunization

-proscar & accutane (birth defects)

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2 week deferral

immunizations for small pox, measles (rubeola), mumps, yellow fever or polio (SABIN)

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whole blood collection

-select collection bag with desired anticoagulant

-ensure proper ID of patient

-prepare venipuncture site: scrub with iodine (clears normal flora of skin) and let dry completely

-draw donor blood

-mix blood and anticoagulant constantly (can be done by machinery)

-do not leave donor unattended

-when sufficient volume has been collected, draw pilot tubes of blood

-make integral segments

-give donor post-collection instructions

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donor processing tests

-ABO typing: forward and reverse type

-Rh type: weak D test

-serum antibody screen: manufactured pooled screening units are used on donor units to look for clinically significant non-BO Abs

-if there are clinically significant Abs present, use the RBCs and discard plasma that contains the Abs

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infectious disease tests (donor processing)

-hepatitis B and C

-HTLV I and II

-HIV

-syphilis

-west nile virus

-ALT

-T. cruzi

-zika virus

-CMV (positive units can be used just not on immunocompromised)

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viral marker tests that require confirmation

if the test is positive will repeat and then use a followup test

-HBsAg: if positive use inhibition test

-anti HIV1: confirm with western blot or gel electrophoresis

-any test that is positive will be retested (not necessarily with a different follow up)

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donor unit label

-volunteer or paid donor

-component contained inside (RBCs, plasma, etc.)

-ABO and Rh

-unusual test results of the unit

-anticoagulant type and amount

-volume of blood

-ISBT donor number (country, collection site, year and number of collection all included by this)

-expiration date

-storage temp

-instructions/ precautions for use

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autologous blood donation

donation of blood unit for yourself

-donor and recipient are same person

-blood collected for future use in surgery (preoperative collection) of elective surgeries

-can be done if someone has a rare blood type

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autologous donation requirements

-prescription from physician

-no weight limit, can do low volume collection if < 100 lb

-no age limit

-Hgb: at least 11 g/dL

-HCT: at least 34%

-time period: 3 days since last donation

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autologous donation donor processing

-ABO and Rh testing to confirm that types match

-1st unit (if many are collected) will be tested for hepatitis B and C, syphilis and HIV (if positive label as biohazard)

-labeling is the same as heterologous, but says "for autologous use only"

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directed donor blood donation

the recipient of the blood chooses the donor

-done for elective surgery if recipient cannot donate blood for themself

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directed donor requirements

-ABO and Rh compatibility of donor and recipient

-donor meets physical and history requirements for heterologous donation

-need prescription

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directed donor donor processing

-same tests are performed as heterologous donation

-labeled normally with " for designated recipient" with recipient's ID

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irradiation

a process that is used to inactivate any remaining WBCs (lymphocytes) that are present in a directed donor blood donation

-prevents transfusion associated graft vs. host disease

-required for 1st or 2nd degree relatives

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apheresis

a method of blood collection in which whole blood is withdrawn, a desired component is separated and retained and the remainder of the blood is returned to the donor

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apheresis types

-plateletpheresis: platelets are collected

-leukapheresis: granulocytes

-plasmapheresis: plasma

-erythrocytapheresis: RBCs

-HPC apheresis: hematopoietic progenitor cells

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apheresis requirements

-meets all criteria for heterologous donation

-sufficient time since lsat donation

-no bleeding/ fluid retention problems

-asprin free for 3 days

-platelet count above 150,000 per uL

-WBCs above 4,000 per uL

-serum protein 6 g/dL or higher

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double red donation requirement

-male: 130 lb, 5 ft 1 in

-female: 150 lb. 5 ft 5 in

-HCT: 40% or higher

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heterologous whole blood donation frequency

8 weeks

-RBC mass needs to be replenished

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autologous whole blood donation frequency

3 days (as long as hemoglobin is fine)

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double red cell donation frequency

16 weeks

-RBCs need to replenish

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plasmapheresis donation frequency

4 weeks

-plasma protein levels need to return to normal

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plateletpheresis donation frequency

at least 2 days

-count must be over 150,000 / uL again

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gene

unit of inheritance within a chromosome

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locus

specific location of a gene within a chromosome

-the site on the chromosome where the gene is present

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allele

one of 2+ alternative forms of a gene that can occupy the same locus on a chromosome

-e.g. E and e are alleles for the same locus

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homozygous

the same allele is expressed twice

-the same allele was inherited from both parents

-E+ e- or E- e+ would indicate the person has only one of the possible alleles

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heterozygous

two different alleles are expressed for the same gene

-different alleles were inherited from each parent

-E+ e+ would indicate the person has both of the possible alleles

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genotype

the genetic makeup of a person

-e.g. if the person is Ee or EE or ee

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phenotype

the observed expression of a gene

-e.g. if the person is Tt and the T is dominant and expressed and t is recessive not expressed then only the T phenotype is seen

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codominance

RBC genes are codominant and therefore the phenotype that is observed is a direct representation of the phenotype

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dominant

a trait that will be expressed in the offspring even though it is carried in only one of the homolgous chromosomes

-does not apply to blood genetics

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recessive

a gene that in the presence of a dominant allele does not get expressed

-expression only occurs in the homozygous state

-does not apply to blood genetics

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codominant traits

a pair of alleles where neither is dominant to the other, therefore they are both expressed

-most of the antigens in blood groups follow this inheritance pattern

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antigen dosage (dosage effect)

certain antibodies can have a very strong reaction when tested against a homozygous sample and have a weak or absent reaction when tested against a heterozygous sample

-antibodies give different reaction strength depending on the amount of antigen that is present on a RBC, which differs in homozygous and heterozygous individuals due to codominance of alleles

-e.g. anti-M on a homozygous MM sample will be 4+ agglutination, but will only be 2+ agglutination on a sample that is heterozygous MN

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ABO genes

consist of 2 codominant alleles

-A: AO or AA

-B: BO or BB

-AB: AB

-O: OO

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amorphic genes

"silent genes" that do not produce a detectable antigen

-the gene that codes for type O blood

-someone who is type AO only produces A antigens

-someone who is OO does not have ABO antigens

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units to screen calculation

# units required/ (1- decimal frequency of antigen) * (1-decimal frequency of antigen)

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T cells

-involved in cellular immunity

-use MHC molecule compatability to recognize foreign antigenic cells and eliminate them

-protect against viral, fungal and parasitic infections

-cause tissue graft rejection and protection against tumors

-respond to antigens on APCs

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B cells

-involved in humoral immunity

-mature into plasma cells to secrete Abs

-have surface receptors that allow them to react to a specific Ag they come into contact with

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antibody production

-APCs digest antigens into smaller segments

-Th cells interact with the APC and recognize the Ag

-Th cell activates a B cell to produce a plasma cell that produces Abs

-B cells can become memory B cell and patrol the body for the same antigen that it was sensitized against, and produce Abs again if encountered

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innate immunity

nonspecific and nonchanging defenses against infection

-primary defense mechanisms (skin, mucous membranes, biochemical secretions, pH) prevent bacteria from entering the body

-secondary defense mechanisms (phagocytic cells, alternative and lectin pathway of complement, inflammation) help to fight infection in non-specific ways

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acquired (adaptive) immunity

defense mechanisms that are able to change and respond to a specific infectious agent

-T cells (Th, Tm) and B cells (Bm and plasma) respond to specific antigens

-Abs form against specific Ags

-classical complement activation responds to Ag-Ab complexes and clears them out

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alloantibody

antibodies produced after exposure to non-self antigens in the body

-WBC, platelet or other blood group Ag that are not present in a transfusion recipient that are introduced cause these antibodies to form

-can be a problem in transfusions when the Abs go down to undetectable levels in the plasma and second exposure leads to strong anamnestic response