[CLINCAL PHARMACY] PACOP PINK

It refers to the responsible provision of drug therapy to achieve definite outcomes that are intended to improve

a patient's quality of life

A. Professional-patient's relationship

B. Therapeutic drug monitoring

C. Drug therapy assessment

D. Pharmaceutical care

E. Formal documentation

D

It involves measuring direct and indirect costs attributable to a specific disease

A. Cost-of-Illness Evaluation

B. Cost-Effectiveness Analysis

C. Cost-Minimization Analysis

D. Cost-Utility Analysis

E. Cost-Benefit Analysis

A

The method that allows for the identification, measurement, and comparison of the benefits and costs of a

program or treatment alternative

A. Cost-of-Illness Evaluation

B. Cost-Effectiveness Analysis

C. Cost-Minimization Analysis

D. Cost-Utility Analysis

E. Cost-Benefit Analysis

E

The method that involves the determination of the least costly alternative when comparing two or more

treatment alternatives

A. Cost-of-Illness Evaluation

B. Cost-Effectiveness Analysis

C. Cost-Minimization Analysis

D. Cost-Utility Analysis

E. Cost-Benefit Analysis

C

The method that integrates the patient preferences and health-related quality of life

A. Cost-of-Illness Evaluation

B. Cost-Effectiveness Analysis

C. Cost-Minimization Analysis

D. Cost-Utility Analysis

E. Cost-Benefit Analysis

D

A way of summarizing the health benefits and resources used by competing health care programs so that

policy makers can choose among them

A. Cost-of-Illness Evaluation

B. Cost-Effectiveness Analysis

C. Cost-Minimization Analysis

D. Cost-Utility Analysis

E. Cost-Benefit Analysis

B

It refers to the value assigned to duration of life as modified by impairments, functional states, perceptions and

social opportunities that are influenced by disease, injury, treatment or policy

A. Optimum health

B. Quality of life

C. Health outcomes

D. Responsiveness

E. Wellness of being

B

A study design in which neither the study subject nor the study staff is aware of which group or intervention

the subjects has been assigned

A. Randomized control trial

B. Crossover study

C. Cohort study

D. Blinded study

E. Cross-sectional study

D

A retrospective comparison of causal factors or exposures in a group of persons with disease and those of

persons without the disease

A. Randomized control trial

B. Case control studyC. Cohort study

D. meta-analysis

E. open-label trial

B

A retrospective or prospective follow-up study of exposed and non-exposed defined groups in which a variable

of interest is measured

A. Cross-sectional study

B. Case control study

C. Cross over study

D. Cohort study

E. open label trial

D

A trial comparing treatments in which participants, on completion of one treatment, are switched to the other

A. Cross-sectional study

B. Cross over study

C. meta-analysis

D. open label trial

E. cohort study

B

A study that examines the presence or absence of a disease and other variable in a defined population and

the potential risk factor at a particular point in time or time-interval

A. Cross-sectional study

B. Cohort study

C. case control study

D. cross over study

E. case series

A

Which of the following best describes the neonates?

A. those who are 1 month to 1 year of age

B. those who are 1 year to 12 years of age

C. those who are 12 to 16 years of age

D. those between 1 day and 1 month

E. those born before 32 weeks of gestational age

D

Which of the following best describes the infant?

A. those who are 1 month to 1 year of age

B. those who are 1 year to 12 years of age

C. those who are 12 to 16 years of age

D. those between 1 day and 1 month

E. those born before 32 weeks of gestational age

A

Clinical manifestation of Gray Baby Syndrome include:

I. Characteristic gray color III. Hypertension

II. Abdominal distention IV. Progressive shock

A. I only

B. I and IV only

C. I, II and III only

D. I, II and IV only

E. I and III only

D

Which of the following is associated with the use of thalidomide?

I. Polyneuritis III. Limb deformities

II. Mental retardation

A. I only

B. I, II and III only

C. II and III only

D. III only

E. I and III only

B

Factors that increase the risk of drug-related problems in the elderly include:

I. Polypharmacy III. Medication adherence

II. Inappropriate prescribing IV. Multiple diseases

A. I and II only

B. I, II and III only

C. II and IV only

D. I, II and IV only

E. I, II, III and IV

D

Potential difficulties that may occur while taking medication histories from the elderly include:

I. Impaired hearing III. Multiple diseases and medication

II. Mental acuity IV. Reliance on a caregiver for the historyA. I, II and III only

B. I, III and IV only

C. II, III and IV only

D. I, II and IV only

E. I, II, III and IV

B

Refers to the continual monitoring for unwanted effects and other safety-related aspects of marketed drugs

A. Pharmacoepidemiology

B. Pharmacovigilance

C. Pharmacoinformatics

D. Pharmacogenetics

E. Pharmacogenomics

B

Study of the use of and effect of drugs in a large number of people

A. Pharmacoepidemiology

B. Pharmacovigilance

C. Pharmacoinformatics

D. Pharmacogenetics

E. Pharmacogenomics

A

Any noxious, unintended, and undesired effect of a drug that occurs at doses used in humans for prophylaxis,

diagnosis or therapy

A. Adverse drug event

B. Allergy

C. Hypersensitivity

D. Adverse drug reaction

D

Which of the following is/are true regarding chest x-ray?

I. Provides supplemental information to the physical examination and usually the first diagnostic test in a

cardiac workup

II. Provides details of internal cardiac structures

III. Gives information about position and size of the heart and chambers and surrounding anatomy

A. I only

B. I, II and III

C. I and II only

D. I and III only

E. II and III only

D

The manifestation of chromium deficiency include:

I. Alopecia III. Red blood cell fragility

II. Depigmentation of hair and skin IV. Glucose intolerance

A. I and II only

B. II and IV only

C. I, II, III and VI

D. III only

E. IV only

E

The manifestation of zinc deficiency include:

I. Poor wound healing III. Poor resistance to infection

II. Poor growth

A. I only

B. II and III only

C. I and IV only

D. III only

E. I, II and III only

E

Incompatibilities with fat emulsions cause majority of formulation problems in TPN. Which of the following

affects lipid stability in TPN preparations?

I. Nature of amino acid solution III. The amount of dissolved oxygen in the solution

II. pH IV. Electrolyte content

A. I, II and III only

B. II, III and IV only

C. I, II and IV only

D. I and II only

E. I and IV only

C

Ascorbic acid is the most rapidly oxidized vitamin. The rate of oxidation depends on:

I. Electrolyte content III. Amount of dissolved oxygen in the solution

II. Presence of trace minerals IV. pHA. IV only

B. I and III only

C. I, II and III only

D. II, III and IV only

E. II and IV only

D

Which of the following is the most rapidly reduced vitamin?

A. Riboflavin

B. Niacin

C. Thiamine

D. Cevitamic Acid

E. Ascorbic Acid

C

Which of the following are associated with delusional hyponatremia?

I. Administration of albumin III. Cirrhosis

II. Congestive heart failure

A. II only

B. I and III only

C. I and II only

D. I only

E. I, II and III

E

Which of the following is/are true regarding blood urea nitrogen (BUN)?

I. End product of protein metabolism

II. Produces by liver and kidney

III. Filtered completely at glomerulus

A. I and II only

B. I and III only

C. II and III only

D. I, II and III

E. I only

B

Which of the following accurately describes creatinine?

I. Not absorbed and secreted by the kidney

II. Filtered freely at the glomerulus

III. Metabolized by the kidney

A. I only

B. II only

C. III only

D. I and II only

E. II and III only

D

Which of the following is/are true regarding aspartate aminotransferase (AST)?

I. Also called serum glutamic pyruvic transaminase

II. Abundant in heart and liver tissue

III. Used to evaluate myocardial injury and case prognosis of liver disease resulting from hepatocellular

injury

A. I only

B. I and II only

C. I and III only

D. II and III only

E. III only

D

Which of the following is/are true regarding the comparison of ALT and AST enzyme?

I. ALT elevations persist longer than those of AST.

II. ALT is more liver specific.

III. The liver contains 3.5 times more AST than ALT.

A. I, II and III

B. I and II only

C. II and III only

D. I and III only

E. II only

A

Which of the following may result to a decrease in hematocrit?

I. Hemolysis III. Sickle cell anemia

II. Polycythemia vera

A. I only

B. II only

C. I and II onlyD. I and III only

E. I, II and III

D

According to the Seventh report of Joint National Committee (JNC 7), which of the following best describes a

normal blood pressure?

A. an SBP less than 130, and a DBP less than 85

B. an SBP between 120 and 139, or a DBP between 80 and 89

C. an SBP less than 120, and a DBP less than 80

D. an SBP between 140 and 159, or a DBP between 90 and 99

E. an SBP equal to or greater than 160, or a DBP equal to or greater than 100

C

According to JNC 7, which of the following best describes Stage I hypertension?

A. an SBP less than 130, and a DBP less than 85

B. an SBP between 120 and 139, or a DBP between 80 and 89

C. an SBP less than 120, and a DBP less than 80

D. an SBP between 140 and 159, or a DBP between 90 and 99

E. an SBP equal to or greater than 160, or a DBP equal to or greater than 100

D

Which of the following are the objectives of evaluating patients with documented hypertension?

I. to assess lifestyle and identify other cardiovascular risk factors or concomitant disorders that may affect

prognosis and guide treatment

II. to reveal identifiable causes of high blood pressure and allow patient self-medication

III. to assess the presence or absence of target organ damage and cardiovascular diseases

A. I only

B. II only

C. I and III only

D. I, II and III

E. I and II only

C

Routine laboratory tests for hypertension recommended before initiating therapy include:

I. Electrocardiogram III. Blood glucose and hematocrit

II. Urinary albumin excretion IV. lipid profile

A. I and IV only

B. I and II only

C. I, II and III only

D. I, III and IV only

E. I, II and IV only

D

Lifestyle modification for hypertension include:

I. Diet rich in potassium and calcium

II. Physical activity

III. Moderation of alcohol consumption

IV. Weight reduction of overweight and obese patients

A. II, III and IV only

B. I, III and IV only

C. I, II and IV only

D. I, II and III only

E. I, II, III and IV

E

Which of the following diuretics should be used as initial therapy for most patients with hypertension, either

alone or in combination?

A. Thiazide diuretics

B. Loop diuretics

C. Potassium-sparing diuretics

D. Osmotic diuretics

E. a and b

A

Which of the following statements is/are true regarding the potential unfavorable effects of antihypertensive

drug choices?

I. Thiazide diuretics should be used cautiously in patients with gout

II. Beta-blockers should generally be avoided in individuals with asthma

III. Aldosterone antagonist and potassium-sparing diuretics can cause hypokalemia

A. I, II and III

B. I and II only

C. I and III only

D. II and III only

E. I only

B

Factors that increase the chances of patients' non-adherence to anti-hypertensive therapy include:

I. Misunderstanding of condition or treatmentII. Lack of patient involvement in the care plan

III. Unexpected adverse effects of medications

IV. Complexity of care

A. I and II only

B. III and IV only

C. I, II and III only

D. I, II and IV only

E. I, II, III and IV

E

Which of the following is/are true regarding cholesterol?

I. It is naturally occurring alcohol.

II. It is the precursor molecule for the synthesis of bile acids and steroid hormones.

III. It is used by the body to form cell membranes.

A. II only

B. II and III only

C. I and II only

D. III only

E. I, II and III

E

General principles of the diet therapy intended to lower cholesterol levels include:

I. Choose foods high in complex carbohydrates like starch and fiber.

II. Replace monounsaturated fats with saturated fats and fish oils.

III. Eat less high-fat, high-cholesterol foods.

A. I only

B. III only

C. I, II and III

D. II and III only

E. I and III only

E

Which of the following is/are true regarding bile acid resins as part of the management of

hypercholesterolemia?

I. Resins are not absorbed from the gastrointestinal tract and thus lack systemic toxicity.

II. They reduce total and LDL cholesterol in a dose-independent manner.

III. They have a strong safety record established from years of use.

A. I only

B. III only

C. I, II and III

D. II and III only

E. I and III only

E

Which of the following is/are the side effects of bile acid resins?

I. Constipation III. Nausea

II. Bloating and epigastric fullness IV. Flatulence

A. I and II only

B. II and IV only

C. I and IV only

D. II, III and IV only

E. I, II, III and IV

E

Which of the following is/are true regarding niacin in the management of hypercholesterolemia?

I. It inhibits the mobilization of free fatty acids from peripheral adipose tissue to the liver.

II. It reduces the synthesis and secretion of VLDL particles by the liver.

III. One of its side effects is vasoconstriction which leads to flushing itching and headache.

A. I and II only

B. III only

C. I, II and III

D. II and III only

E. I and III only

A

Which of the following drugs has the most potent cholesterol lowering potential?

A. Bile acid resins

B. HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors

C. Beta-blockers

D. ACE inhibitor

E. Calcium Channel Blockers

B

During drug interactions with statins that result in higher blood levels of the statin or activate metabolite can

increase the risk of myositis. Which of the following statins are most vulnerable to this interaction?

A. Atorvastatin and PravastatinB. Fluvastatin and Simvastatin

C. Cerivastatin and Lovastatin

D. Lovastatin and Simvastatin

E. Atorvastatin and Fluvastatin

D

A small part of clot that breaks off and travels to another part of the vascular system

A. Embolus

B. Thrombosis

C. Infarction

D. Ischemia

E. Stroke

A

Which of the following are the primary factors that influence the formation of pathologic clots?

I. Abnormalities of blood flow that cause venous stasis

II. Abnormalities of blood vessel walls

III. Hypocoagulability resulting from alterations in the availability or the integrity of blood clotting components

A. I and II only

B. III only

C. I, II and III

D. II and III only

E. I and III only

A

Which of the following is/are true regarding heparin?

I. A rapid-acting anticoagulant that is effective only when administered parenterally

II. Obtained from bovine lung or porcine intestinal mucosa

III. Acts by binding to the naturally circulating anticoagulant antithrombin III

A. I only

B. II and III only

C. I and III only

D. I, II and III

E. III only

D

Which of the following is/are true regarding warfarin?

I. Acts as a Vitamin K agonist

II. A rapid-acting anticoagulant that is effective only when administered parenterally

III. Rapidly and completely absorbed in the upper gastrointestinal tract

A. I only

B. II and III only

C. I and III only

D. I, II and III only

E. III only

E

Which of the following is/are true regarding Prothrombin Time (PT)?

I. Prolonged by deficiencies of clotting factor II, V, VII and X

II. Reflects alterations in the intrinsic and common pathways of the clotting cascade

III. The internationally recognized standard for monitoring warfarin therapy when exposed as INR

A. I only

B. II and III only

C. I and III only

D. I, II and III only

E. III only

C

Which of the following statements is/are true regarding Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time (aPTT)?

I. Reflects alterations in the extrinsic and common pathways of the clotting cascade

II. Used to monitor heparin therapy

III. Performed by adding a surface-activating agent, a partial thromboplastin reagent, and calcium to the

plasma sample

A. I only

B. II and III only

C. I and III only

D. I, II and III only

E. III only

B

A clinical syndrome characterized by discomfort in the chest, jaw, shoulder, back or arm

A. Atrial fibrillation

B. Angina pectoris

C. Myocardial infarction

D. Deep vein thrombosis

E. Ischemic heart disease

B

Which of the following statements describe/s accurately events in the process of atherosclerosis?

I. Extracellular lipids accumulate and undergo oxidation

II. As lesions progress, smooth muscle cells migrate, proliferate, and secrete large amounts of extracellular

matrix

III. The end results is the presence of an elevated plaque, which occludes the vessel lumen.

A. I only

B. II and III only

C. I and III only

D. I, II and III

E. III only

D

A type of angina which can be induced y exertion, emotional stress, or a heavy meal, and can be relieved by

rest, nitroglycerin or both

A. Prinzmetal's angina

B. Angina decubitus

C. Unstable angina

D. Stable or classic angina

E. Preinfarction angina

D

A type of angina precipitated by coronary artery spasm that reduces blood flow, and usually occurs at rest

rather than with exertion or emotional stress

A. Prinzmetal's angina

B. Angina decubitus

C. Unstable angina

D. Stable or classic angina

E. Preinfarction angina

A

Which of the following is/are true regarding the mechanism of action of nitrates?

I. Causes venous dilation, which reduces left ventricular volume and myocardial wall tension, decreasing

oxygen requirements

II. Reduces arteriolar resistance, helping to reduce afterload, which decreases myocardial oxygen demand

III. Facilitates collateral circulation by reducing pressure in cardiac tissues

A. I only

B. II and III only

C. I and III only

D. I, II and III

E. III only

D

Nitrate tolerance is one major problem with the long-term use of nitroglycerin and long-acting nitrates. Which

of the following drugs have shown to be capable of reversing this phenomenon?

I. Acetylcysteine III. ACE inhibitors

II. Beta-blockers IV. Diuretics

A. I and II only

B. II and III only

C. I, II and III only

D. II, III and IV only

E. I, III and IV only

E

Considered drug of choice in treatment of angina at rest

A. Nitroglycerin

B. Calcium-channel blocker

C. ACE inhibitor

D. Beta-blockers

E. Clopidogre

B

Used for the same arrhythmias for which quinidine is given, but poses added concern when used

intravenously because of increased cardiovascular effects such as hypotension, syncope and myocardial

depression

A. Procainamide

B. Disopyramide

C. Tocainide

D. Mexiletine

E. Flecainide

A

Most commonly used to treat digitalis-induced ventricular and supraventricular arrhythmias

A. Profapenone

B. Flecainide

C. Phenytoin

D. Quinidine

E. Propranolol

C

Class I anti-arrhythmics work by blocking the rapid inward sodium current and thereby slow down the rate of

rise of the cardiac tissue's action potential. Which subclassification moderately reduces the depolarization rate

and prolongs repolarization?

A. Class IA

B. Class IB

C. Class IC

D. Class ID

E. Class IA and Class IB

A

Which of the following is/are not associated with cinchonism caused by quinidine?

I. Hearing loss III. Tinnitus

II. Photophobia IV. Blurred vision

A. I and II only

B. III and IV only

C. I, II and III only

D. I, III and IV only

E. II, III and IV only

D

Among the type III anti-arrhythmics listed below, which has been reported as causing Torsade's de Pointes

type of ventricular tachycardia?

A. Sotalol

B. Flecainide

C. Amiodarone

D. Quinidine

E. Lidocaine

C

A class I anti-arrhythmic drug that can cause fatigue, arthralgia, myalgia and low-grade fever, suggestive of

systemic lupus erythematosus-like syndrome

A. Flecainide

B. Disopyramide

C. Mexiletine

D. Procainamide

E. Quinidine

D

A class IV anti-arrhythmic that is primarily indicated for the treatment of supraventricular tachyarrthymias

A. Verapamil

B. Disopyramide

C. Propranolol

D. Sotalol

E. Ibutilide

A

The New York Heart Association functional limitation class that indicates that the degree of effort necessary to

elicit Heart Failure symptoms is equal to those that would limit normal individuals

A. Class I

B. Class II

C. Class III

D. Class IV

E. Class V

A

The New York Heart Association functional limitation class that indicates that the degree of effort necessary to

elicit Heart Failure symptoms occurs with less-than ordinary exertion

A. Class I

B. Class II

C. Class III

D. Class IV

E. Class V

C

The New York Heart Association functional limitation class that indicates that the degree of effort necessary to

elicit Heart Failure symptoms occurs while at rest

A. Class I

B. Class II

C. Class III

D. Class IV

E. Class V

D

Refers to the force exerted on the ventricular muscle at the end of diastole that determines the degree od

muscle fiber stretch

A. Frank-Starling mechanism

B. AfterloadC. Cardiac Output

D. Preload

E. Decompensation

D

Determined by the amount of force needed to overcome pressure in the aorta

A. Frank-Starling mechanism

B. Afterload

C. Cardiac Output

D. Preload

E. Decompensation

B

Which of the following is/are true regarding precautions with the use of digoxin?

I. Increased potassium levels favor digoxin binding to cardiac cells and increase its effect.

II. Increased calcium levels increase the force of myocardial contraction.

III. Magnesium levels are inversely related to digoxin activity.

A. I only

B. II only

C. I and II only

D. I and III only

E. II and III only

E

Which of the following dosages of dopamine is selected for its positive inotropic effects in treating the patient

with Heart Failure?

A. 40mg/kg/min

B. 40ug/kg/min

C. 10-20ug/kg/min

D. 5-10ug/kg/min

E. 2ug/kg/min

D

A loop diuretic that is useful as a rapid-acting intravenous agent in reversing acute pulmonary edema

A. Ethacrynic acid

B. Furosemide

C. Spironolactone

D. Bumetanide

E. Mannitol

B

Diuretics which have become preferred due to their ability to increase sodium excretion by 20-25% of the

filtered load and to maintain their efficacy until renal function is severely impaired

I. Spironolactone III. Furosemide

II. Ethacrynic acid IV. Bumetanide

A. I and II only

B. II and III only

C. I, II and III only

D. II, III and IV only

E. I, III and IV only

D

Which of the following may be used in the acute management of digitalis toxicity?

I. Potassium III. Fab fragment antibody

II. Cholestyramine resin

A. I only

B. II only

C. I and II only

D. I and III only

E. I, II and III only

E

Which of the following best describes Isoniazid?

A. May be nephrotoxic and ototoxic

B. Has limited use due to its hepatotoxic potential

C. Requires pyridoxine supplementation

D. May discolor the tears and urine orange red

E. A pyrazine analogue of nicotinamide

C

Which of the following may be treated with streptomycin?

I. Bacterial endocarditis III. Urinary tract infection

II. Tularemia IV. Tuberculosis

A. I, II and III only

B. II, III and IV only

C. I and II only

D. II and IV only

E. III and IV only

D

Which of the following best illustrates the relative ototoxicity of aminoglycosides?

A. Streptomycin=kanamycin>amikacin=gentamicin

B. Kanamycin>streptomycin=tobramycin>amikacin

C. Streptomycin=gentamicin>kanamycin=amikacin

D. Kanamycin>streptomycin>kanamycin>amikacin

E. Streptomycin>kanamycin>amikacin>gentamicin

A

Which of the following aminoglycosides can cause primarily vestibular damage?

A. Neomycin and amikacin

B. Gentamicin and streptomycin

C. Kanamycin and streptomycin

D. Amikacin and neomycin

E. Streptomycin and amikacin

B

Which of the following aminoglycosides can cause mainly auditory damage?

A. Gentamicin and streptomycin

B. Streptomycin and neomycin

C. Amikacin and kanamycin

D. Kanamycin and streptomycin

E. Amikacin and gentamicin

C

Which is the least nephrotoxic aminoglycoside?

A. Streptomycin

B. Tobramycin

C. Neomycin

D. Amikacin

E. Netilmicin

A

Which is the most nephrotoxic aminoglycoside?

A. Streptomycin

B. Tobramycin

C. Neomycin

D. Amikacin

E. Netilmicin

C

Which carbapenem needs to be combined with cilastatin sodium to inhibit the action of renal dipeptidases to

this drug?

A. Aztreonam

B. Meropenem

C. Carbamazepine

D. Ertapenem

E. Imipenem

E

Which of the following is/are the routes of administration of Penicillin G Sodium and potassium?

I. Intradermal III. Intramuscular

II. Intravenous IV. Oral

A. II, III and IV only

B. I, III and IV only

C. II and III only

D. IV only

E. II and IV only

A

Anaphylaxis is a life-threatening reaction that most commonly occurs with parenteral administration of

penicillin. The following are its sign and symptoms:

I. Nausea III. Abdominal pain

II. Bronchoconstriction IV. Severe Hypertension

A. I only

B. I and II only

C. I, II and III only

D. IV only

E. II and IV only

C

With which antibiotics does antibiotic antagonism occur when given within 1 hour of penicillin administration?

A. Tetracycline

B. Aminglycoside

C. Carbapenems

D. Erythromycin and chloramphenicol

E. Carbenicillin and isoniazid

D

An extended spectrum penicillin that is 10 times as active as carbenicillin against Pseudomonas organisms?

A. CarbenicillinB. Piperacillin

C. Ticarcillin

D. Mezlocillin

E. Tazobactam

B

. Which of the following are manifestations of complex partial seizure?

I. Glassy stare

II. Visual, Auditory, or olfactory hallucinations

III. Automatism

A. I only

B. I and II only

C. I and III only

D. I, II and III

E. III only

D

Seizures that present as alteration of consciousness lasting 10-30 seconds

A. Simple partial seizures

B. Petit mal seizures

C. Myoclonic seizures

D. Tonic-clonic seizures

E. Complex partial seizures

B

In a grand mal seizure, which of the following may mark the clonic phase?

A. Contraction of the diaphragm

B. Arching of the back

C. Nausea

D. Muscle jerking and flaccidity of muscle

E. soreness

D

Which of the following is/are true regarding the tonic phase of a grand mal seizure?

I. The individual becomes rigid and falls.

II. Respirations are interrupted.

III. The tonic phase lasts for about a minute

IV. The individual may experience confusion and disorientation.

A. I only

B. II only

C. I, II, III and IV

D. I, II and III only

E. I, II and IV only

D

Which of the following may compromise the postical phase of generalized tonic-clonic seizure?

I. Heavy salivation III. Tachycardia

II. Incontinence IV. Drowsiness

A. I, II, III and IV only

B. I, II and III only

C. I and II only

D. I, II and IV only

E. IV only

E

Which of the following is/are true regarding the major phases of seizure activity?

I. The ictal phase may precede the seizure by hour or days depending on the changes in the behavior or

mood of the patient.

II. The prodromal phase may include a subjective sensation, lethargy and confusion.

III. The ictal phase is the seizure itself, and its onset is heralded by a scream or cry.

A. I only

B. II only

C. III only

D. I and II only

E. IV only

C

Measures the electrical activity of brain, and helps to identify functional cerebral changes underlying structural

abnormalities

A. CBC

B. EEG

C. MRI

D. PET

E. CSF

B

Which of the following is/are true regarding neurological imaging studies for seizures?

I. The MRI can detect brain lesions related to epilepsy.

II. The PET measures the electrical activity of the brain.

III. EEG offer functional views of the brain to detect hypometabolism or relative hypoperfusion

A. I only

B. I and II only

C. I and III only

D. I, II and III only

E. II only

A

Which of the following anti-convulsants is contraindicated in patients with a history of Tricyclic antidepressants

hypersensitivity?

A. Ethosuximide

B. Carbamazepine

C. Phenobarbital

D. Phenytoin

E. Gabapentin

B

What are the most common adverse effects of anticonvulsive drugs?

I. Alteration in cognition and mentation

II. Headaches and dizziness

III. Gastrointestinal symptoms

A. II only

B. II and III only

C. I, II and III only

D. III only

E. I and II only

C