Week 5 Practice Test 1

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Last updated 8:01 PM on 6/21/26
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57 Terms

1
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A 15-year-old female has never had a menstrual period. Genetic testing reveals a 45,X karyotype. Which condition is the most likely cause of her primary amenorrhea?

Turner Syndrome

2
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A female runner experiences cessation of menses after losing significant weight and increasing exercise intensity. What type of amenorrhea is most likely present?

Secondary amenorrhea

3
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During the menstrual cycle, a sudden increase in estradiol causes a switch from negative to positive feedback. Which hormonal event occurs next?

LH surge leading to ovulation

4
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Which hormone predominates during the follicular phase and stimulates ovarian follicle development?

FSH

5
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A patient is in the luteal phase of the menstrual cycle. Which ovarian structure is primarily responsible for progesterone secretion?

Corpus luteum

6
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A woman presents with obesity, irregular menstrual cycles, infertility, and excess facial hair. Which endocrine disorder is most likely?

Polycystic Ovary Syndrome (PCOS)

7
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A patient reports severe pelvic pain that worsens during menstruation. Laparoscopy reveals endometrial tissue on the ovaries. What condition is present?

Endometriosis

8
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Which breast structure is directly responsible for milk production?

Alveoli

9
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Why are postmenopausal women at increased risk for osteoporosis?

Decreased estrogen reduces osteoprotegerin (OPG), increasing osteoclast activity

10
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Which testicular cells produce testosterone in response to LH stimulation?

Leydig cells

11
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Which testicular cells produce inhibin to suppress FSH secretion?

Sertoli cells

12
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Testosterone is converted into a more potent androgen responsible for virilization. Which hormone is formed?

Dihydrotestosterone (DHT)

13
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A patient is prescribed sildenafil for erectile dysfunction. This medication enhances the effects of which molecule responsible for erection?

Nitric oxide

14
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An older male presents with urinary frequency, urgency, and nocturia. What age-related condition is most likely responsible?

Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia (BPH)

15
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Which gene initiates testicular development in a 46,XY embryo?

SRY gene

16
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Shortly after birth, an infant experiences a transient increase in reproductive hormones. This phenomenon is known as what?

Minipuberty

17
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What hypothalamic peptide increases at puberty and stimulates pulsatile GnRH secretion?

Kisspeptin

18
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A child develops pubic and axillary hair before other signs of puberty. Which developmental process is occurring?

Adrenarche

19
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A male has small testes, gynecomastia, infertility, and a 47,XXY karyotype. Which syndrome is present?

Klinefelter Syndrome

20
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A 6-year-old girl develops breast buds and pubic hair. What term describes this abnormal timing of puberty?

Precocious puberty

21
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A pregnant patient develops hypertension and proteinuria at 32 weeks gestation. What pregnancy complication is most concerning?

Preeclampsia

22
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Which organism is the most common cause of bacterial pharyngitis and may lead to rheumatic heart disease?

Streptococcus pyogenes

23
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Which Streptococcus pyogenes virulence factor prevents complement-mediated destruction?

M protein

24
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A patient presents with a painful skin abscess. Culture reveals a catalase-positive organism commonly found in the nares. Which pathogen is most likely?

Staphylococcus aureus

25
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What enzyme allows Staphylococcus aureus to neutralize reactive oxygen species produced by neutrophils?

Catalase

26
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A strain of Staphylococcus aureus produces an enzyme that destroys penicillin. Which enzyme is responsible?

Beta-lactamase

27
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Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) most commonly gains resistance through which gene?

mecA gene

28
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Which Staphylococcus aureus exotoxin forms pores in host cell membranes, leading to cell death?

Alpha-toxin

29
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A patient develops lung granulomas after infection with an acid-fast bacillus possessing a lipid-rich cell wall. Which pathogen is responsible?

Mycobacterium tuberculosis

30
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Which sexually transmitted pathogen is an obligate intracellular organism that depends on host ATP production?

Chlamydia trachomatis

31
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Which form of Chlamydia trachomatis is responsible for infecting host cells?

Elementary body

32
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Which form of Chlamydia trachomatis replicates within host cells?

Reticulate body

33
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A male presents with severe purulent urethritis. Gram stain reveals intracellular diplococci. Which pathogen is most likely?

Neisseria gonorrhoeae

34
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A hospitalized patient develops severe diarrhea after antibiotic therapy. Which healthcare-associated pathogen is most likely responsible?

Clostridioides difficile

35
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Which toxins produced by Clostridioides difficile cause pseudomembranous colitis?

Toxin A (TcdA) and Toxin B (TcdB)

36
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A patient develops a bull's-eye rash after a tick bite and later experiences joint pain. Which pathogen is most likely responsible?

Borrelia burgdorferi

37
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Which influenza viral protein binds host cell sialic acid receptors to initiate infection?

Hemagglutinin

38
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Which influenza viral protein allows newly formed virions to leave infected cells?

Neuraminidase

39
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Which HIV enzyme converts viral RNA into DNA?

Reverse transcriptase

40
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Which HIV enzyme inserts viral DNA into the host genome?

Integrase

41
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A patient contracts malaria after a mosquito bite. Which parasite stage enters red blood cells and produces classic cyclical symptoms?

Merozoites

42
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A child develops shock-like inflammation 5 weeks after recovering from COVID-19. Which condition is most likely?

Multisystem Inflammatory Syndrome in Children (MIS-C)

43
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An older adult presents with confusion, falls, and decreased appetite rather than cough and fever. Which infection should be suspected?

Community-Acquired Pneumonia (CAP)

44
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What term describes the presence of a microorganism without tissue invasion, inflammation, or symptoms?

Colonization

45
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What term describes microbial invasion with tissue damage and inflammatory signs?

Infection

46
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Which pathogen category includes viruses and prions?

Nonliving pathogen particles

47
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Which pathogen category includes bacteria?

Prokaryotes

48
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Which pathogen category includes fungi and protozoa?

Single-celled eukaryotes

49
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Which bacterial structure increases virulence and is particularly important in splenectomized patients?

Capsule

50
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Which bacterial structure is primarily responsible for mobility?

Flagellum

51
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Which bacterial structure primarily functions in attachment to host tissues?

Pili

52
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What is the process by which bacteria reproduce by doubling their numbers?

Binary fission

53
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What bacterial DNA structure commonly carries antibiotic resistance genes?

Plasmids

54
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Which mechanism of antibiotic resistance involves actively pumping drugs out of the bacterial cell?

Efflux pumps

55
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Beta-lactam antibiotics exert their effect by disrupting synthesis of what bacterial structure?

Bacterial cell wall

56
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Which fungal cell membrane component serves as the target for many antifungal medications?

Ergosterol

57
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Which antiviral drug class prevents influenza virions from being released from infected cells?

Neuraminidase inhibitors