HI27 - Immunodeficiencies & Immune-Modifying Drugs

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Last updated 12:26 AM on 1/3/26
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92 Terms

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Define immunodeficiency.

Partial or total loss of function of one or more components of the immune system leading to increased risk of infection.

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What is a primary immunodeficiency?

A congenital or inherited defect in genes for components of the immune system; also known as inborn errors of immunity.

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What is a secondary immunodeficiency?

An acquired immunodeficiency caused by environmental factors, diseases, medications, malnutrition, pregnancy, age, stress, trauma, or medical interventions.

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What are opportunistic infections?

Infections caused by microorganisms that are normally harmless, often arising from resident microbiota such as fungal or Candida infections; they are difficult to treat.

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Why are immunodeficient patients more susceptible to opportunistic infections?

Because immune system defects reduce the ability to control normally harmless organisms.

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Why are some primary immunodeficiencies more common in males?

Because many are X-linked recessive disorders; males have only one X chromosome so one defective copy causes disease.

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Which lymphocyte deficiency causes the most severe immunodeficiencies?

CD4+ T Cell deficiency.

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Approximately how many primary immunodeficiencies exist?

Close to 500 inherited disorders.

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What is the approximate incidence of primary immunodeficiencies?

Affects about 1/200 to 1/1000 people.

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What are the common presentations of primary immunodeficiencies?

Severe or unusual infections, autoimmune/autoinflammatory diseases, and malignancies.

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Why may primary immunodeficiencies be missed at birth?

Maternal antibodies can mask symptoms early in life.

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What test is commonly done for newborns to detect severe immunodeficiencies?

Blood panel including tests for T-cell receptor gene rearrangement failure.

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What do pyogenic infections indicate about immune defects?

Possible antibody, complement, or phagocyte deficiency.

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What do persistent fungal or viral infections suggest?

Defects in T cell function.

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What two innate immune components are typically affected in innate immune deficiencies?

Complement function and phagocytosis.

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What are the two major consequences of complement deficiencies?

Reduced opsonization/phagocytosis of extracellular bacteria and loss of membrane attack complex formation.

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Which autoimmune disorder resembles symptoms of classical complement pathway deficiency?

Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (SLE).

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Why do late complement deficiencies increase susceptibility to Neisseria meningitidis?

Because MAC formation is required for defense against Neisseria species.

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How much does meningitis risk increase in late complement deficiency?

10,000-fold increase (from 1:2,000,000 to 1:200).

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What ocular condition may occur secondary to meningococcemia?

Ischemic optic neuropathy or retinal vascular occlusions.

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What is Paroxysmal Nocturnal Hemoglobinuria caused by?

Deficiency of complement regulators DAF (CD55) and Protectin (CD59).

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What are signs of PNH?

Morning hemoglobinuria (blood in urine), anemia, dysphagia/odynophagia, high risk of fatal thrombosis.

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What causes hereditary angioedema?

Deficiency of C1 inhibitor.

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What are symptoms of hereditary angioedema?

Sudden swelling of the face, GI tract, or airway.

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"What is the treatment for hereditary angioedema?"

"Exogenous C1 inhibitor supplementation."

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"What causes Leukocyte Adhesion Deficiency?"

"Defects in integrins or complement receptors, preventing neutrophils and monocytes from exiting blood vessels or phagocytosing complement-opsonized bacteria."

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"What are ocular manifestations of Leukocyte Adhesion Deficiency?"

"Recurrent severe conjunctivitis and keratitis with poor healing and scarring."

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"What causes Chronic Granulomatous Disease?"

"Phagocytes cannot produce superoxide (O2-), preventing killing of ingested bacteria."

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"What are ocular manifestations of CGD?"

"Granulomatous uveitis, chorioretinal lesions, conjunctivitis, keratitis, and eyelid abscesses."

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"What causes Chediak-Higashi Syndrome?"

"Defect in vesicle fusion, preventing phagosomes from fusing with lysosomes."

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"What infections occur in Chediak-Higashi Syndrome?"

"Persistent and recurrent bacterial infections."

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"What bacteria pose major threats in antibody deficiencies?"

Encapsulated pyogenic bacteria: Haemophilus influenzae, Streptococcus pneumoniae, Streptococcus pyogenes, Staphylococcus aureus.

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"Why are these bacteria dangerous to antibody-deficient patients?"

"They are not recognized well by innate phagocyte receptors and rely on antibody/complement for clearance."

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"What causes X-linked Agammaglobulinemia?"

"BTK deficiency preventing pre-BCR checkpoint activation; heavy chains rearranged but cannot signal."

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"When does X-linked Agammaglobulinemia appear?"

"Around 6 months of age, when maternal antibodies wane."

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"What is the outcome of X-linked Agammaglobulinemia?"

"Frequent bacterial infections and chronic lung disease from bronchiectasis."

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"What ocular infections occur in X-linked Agammaglobulinemia?"

"Recurrent bacterial conjunctivitis, blepharitis, and keratitis."

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"What is the treatment for X-linked Agammaglobulinemia?"

"Antibiotic prophylaxis and monthly IVIG (gamma globulin)."

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"What characterizes Common Variable Immune Deficiency?"

"Low IgM, IgG, and IgA; recurrent respiratory and sinus infections; often diagnosed in 30s-40s."

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"What ocular findings occur in CVID?"

"Recurrent bacterial conjunctivitis and keratitis; dry eye from chronic ocular surface inflammation."

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"What causes Hyper-IgM Syndrome?"

"Defects in CD40, CD40L, or downstream signaling → loss of T-cell help."

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"What immunological consequences occur in Hyper-IgM Syndrome?"

"No germinal centers, absent class switching, impaired macrophage activation; IgM high but IgG/A/E low."

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"What infections are Hyper-IgM patients susceptible to?"

"Pyogenic and encapsulated bacteria."

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"What is the most common primary immunodeficiency?"

"Selective IgA deficiency."

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"What infections occur in IgA deficiency?"

"GI and respiratory infections, and recurrent conjunctivitis, blepharitis, and keratitis."

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"What are examples of rare B cell deficiencies?"

"Selective IgG deficiency and selective IgM deficiency."

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"What is the major risk of T cell deficiencies?"

"Severe Combined Immunodeficiency (SCID) and vulnerability to viral, fungal, and opportunistic infections."

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"What ocular findings occur in T cell deficiencies?"

"Severe viral/fungal keratitis, chronic conjunctivitis, CMV/HSV/VZV retinitis, chronic mucocutaneous candidiasis."

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"Why are CD4+ T cell deficiencies severe?"

"CD4+ T cells coordinate all adaptive responses including B cell help, innate immune activation, and CD8+ activation; deficiency is uniformly fatal without transplant."

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"What causes MHC Class I deficiency?"

"Failure to transport peptides into ER → impaired CD8+ T cell development."

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"What infections occur in MHC Class I deficiency?"

"Increased viral infections, especially respiratory."

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"What infections occur in NK cell deficiency?"

"Herpesvirus infections (HSV, VZV, EBV)."

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"What causes secondary B cell deficiencies?"

"Malnutrition leading to decreased IgG synthesis."

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"What diseases cause secondary T cell deficiencies?"

"AIDS, measles, immunosuppressive drugs, chemotherapy."

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"What causes secondary complement deficiency?"

"Liver failure or dysfunction (cirrhosis, hepatitis B/C, malnutrition)."

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"What is neutropenia and what causes it?"

"Neutrophils <500/μL, often due to chemotherapy or AIDS; predisposes to pyogenic bacteria."

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"What is asplenia?"

"Absence or dysfunction of spleen, leading to susceptibility to encapsulated bacteria."

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"What conditions cause functional asplenia?"

"Sickle cell disease, cirrhosis, celiac disease, SLE, IBD, bone marrow transplant."

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"What are immunomodulatory drugs?"

"Drugs that suppress or stimulate immune function, including NSAIDs, corticosteroids, cytotoxic drugs, T-cell inhibitors, biologics, and some antibiotics."

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"What do ibuprofen and naproxen do?"

Reversibly inhibit COX-1/COX-2, reducing PGE2 synthesis; analgesic, antipyretic, and anti-inflammatory at high doses.

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"What risks are associated with NSAIDs?"

"GI ulcers, kidney impairment, cardiovascular risk, harmful in 3rd trimester of pregnancy, and contraindicated in IBD."

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"What is aspirin's mechanism?"

"Irreversibly inhibits COX-1 and modifies COX-2; reduces prostaglandin production and induces lipoxin synthesis."

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"What is a major aspirin risk in children?"

Reye's syndrome (brain and liver damage); therefore contraindicated in children/teens.

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"Why is acetaminophen not an NSAID?"

"Because it does not suppress inflammation; only inhibits COX in the CNS."

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"What is the mechanism of corticosteroids?"

"Diffuse into cells, bind steroid receptors, inhibit NF-κB activation, suppress cytokines, prostaglandins, leukotrienes, and leukocyte extravasation."

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"What are corticosteroids intended to do?"

"Reduce inflammation and suppress innate immune activation."

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"What infections are corticosteroid users vulnerable to?"

"Bacterial, viral (HSV, VZV), and fungal ocular infections."

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"What systemic side effects do corticosteroids cause?"

"Weight gain, fluid retention, diabetes, mood swings, osteoporosis, and immunosuppression."

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"What are topical corticosteroid risks?"

"Skin atrophy and increased risk of fungal or bacterial infection."

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"What are inhaled steroid uses?"

"Asthma, allergic rhinitis, severe aphthous ulcer treatment."

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"What are systemic steroid uses?"

"SLE, RA, IBD, organ transplant rejection prevention."

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"What do cytotoxic drugs target?"

"Dividing cells; prevent replication of activated T cells or autoimmune cells."

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"What are major cytotoxic drug side effects?"

"Leukopenia, mucositis, gastrointestinal toxicity, infections."

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"What does methotrexate do?"

"Inhibits thymidine synthesis; used in cancer, GVHD, RA, psoriasis, SLE, Crohn's."

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"What drugs inhibit nucleotide synthesis?"

"Azathioprine and mycophenolic acid."

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What are the uses of drugs that reduce nucleotide synthesis?

"Graft rejection prevention, RA, Crohn's disease, lupus nephritis."

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"What is cyclophosphamide used for?"

"Chemotherapy, anti-rejection, severe SLE/RA, MS."

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"What blocks NFAT signaling?"

"Cyclosporine A and tacrolimus; prevent IL-2 production and T cell proliferation."

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"What are cyclosporine/tacrolimus side effects?"

"Infections, nephrotoxicity, gingival hyperplasia (CsA), impaired bone healing, herpesvirus reactivation."

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"What drug blocks IL-2 signaling via mTOR inhibition?"

"Rapamycin (Sirolimus)."

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"What are rapamycin side effects?"

"Impaired wound healing, diabetes-like syndrome, thrombocytopenia."

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"Which antibiotics are immunomodulatory?"

"Tetracyclines (sub-antimicrobial dose)."

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"What are tetracycline immunomodulatory effects?"

"Inhibit cytokines, prostaglandins, and MMPs; used in acne."

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"What are tetracycline side effects?"

"Tooth staining, impaired fetal bone development, photosensitivity."

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"What are biologics?"

"Pharmaceuticals produced from living organisms (cells, bacteria, animals); include monoclonal antibodies and cytokine inhibitors."

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"What risks are associated with animal-derived antibodies?"

"Serum sickness and loss of efficacy."

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"What percentage of 2024 pharmaceutical spending was biologics?"

"37% (about $511 billion)."

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"What is the typical patient cost for biologics?"

"$1,000-$3,000+ per month."

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"What do antithymocyte globulins do?"

"Polyclonal antibodies that deplete developing T cells; used to prevent transplant rejection."

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"What does rituximab target?"

"CD20 on B cells; used for RA, autoimmune skin disease, Sjögren syndrome, vasculitis."

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"What do anticytokine biologics do?"

"Block inflammatory cytokines such as IL-1, IL-4/13, IL-6, IL-17A, IL-12/23, and TNF-α."

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"What determines immunogenicity of monoclonal antibodies?"

"Degree of humanization: Mouse > Chimeric > Humanized > Fully Human (least immunogenic)."