IDK kung anong cycle

Which of the following is not acceptable disposal practice?

A. Discarding urine into a sink

B. Disposing of used, empty urine containers with non-hazardous waste

C. Discarding a used, broken specimen transfer pipette with noninfectious glass waste

D. Discarding blood specimens into a biohazard container

C. Discarding a used, broken specimen transfer pipette with noninfectious glass waste

An employee can learn the carcinogenic potential of potassium chloride by consulting the:

A. Chemical hygiene plan

B. Safety Data Sheet

C. OSHA standards

D. Urinalysis procedure manual

B. Safety Data Sheet

The NPFA classification symbol contains information on all of the following except:

A. Fire hazards

B. Biohazards

C. Reactivity

D. Health hazards

B. Biohazards

Identify this hazard label

A. Flammable

B. Oxidiser

C. Corrosive

D. Carcinogen

B. Oxidiser

The final phase of degeneration that granular casts undergo is represented by which of the following casts?

A. Fine

B. Coarse

C. Cellular

D. Waxy

D. Waxy

Proper sequence of donning PPE

A. Gown → Mask → Googles → Gloves

B. Mask → Gown → Gloves → Googles

C. Googles → Mask → Gown → Gloves

D. Mask → Gloves → Gown → Mask

A. Gown → Mask → Googles → Gloves

What type of fire is caused by combustible metal?

A. Class A

B. Class B

C. Class K

D. Class D

D. Class D

This is more representative measure of renal concentration ability?

A. Osmolality

B. SG

C. pH

D. Protein

A. Osmolality

Urine Clarity: Many particulates, print blurred through the urine

A. Hazy

B. Milky

C. Turbid

D. Cloudy

D. Cloudy

In Stamey-Meares test, which is tested for urethral infection or inflammation?

A. VB1

B. EPS

C. VB2

D. VB3

A. VB1

What is the normal urine odor?

A. Ammoniacal

B. Aromatic

C. Putrid

D. Odorless

B. Aromatic

Which urine preservative is bacteriostatic and can be used for culture transport?

A. Formalin

B. Phenol

C. Boric acid

D. Sodium fluoride

C. Boric acid

What is the reading of SG when 5% NaCl is used as calibrator for refractometer?

A. 1.000

B. 1.035

C. 1.034

D. 1.022

D. 1.022

As the specific gravity increases, the indicator changes from blue (1.000 - alkaline), through shades of ________ (1.030 - acid)

A. Green to red

B. Green to blue

C. Green to yellow

D. Blue to orange

C. Green to yellow

Which of the following colligative properties is not stated correctly?

A. The boiling point is raised by solute

B. The freezing point is raised by solute

C. The vapor pressure is lowered by solute

D. The osmotic pressure is raised by solute

B. The freezing point is raised by solute

The following are pathologic causes of urine turbidity except:

I). Bacteria

II). WBC

III). RBC

IV). Mucus

V). Amorphous urates

A. One of these

B. Two of these

C. Three of these

D. Four of these

E. NOTA

B. Two of these

The following are soluble in dilute acetic acid except:

I). RBC

II). Phosphate

III). Carbonates

IV). Chyle

V). Yeast

A. One of these

B. Two of these

C. Three of these

D. Four of these

E. NOTA

B. Two of these

Sensitivity of clinitest?

A. 200 mg/dL

B. 100 mg/dL

C. 400 mg/dL

D. 500 mg/dL

A. 200 mg/dL

A specimen containing 2 g/dL protein and 3 g/dL glucose has a specific gravity reading of 1.030 using refractometer. The laboratory temperature is around 26 C. Calculate the corrected reading

A. 1.012

B. 1.010

C. 1.013

D. 1.011

A. 1.012

What is the color of the reagent strip for pH when the urine has a pH of 6-9?

A. Yellow to green

B. Yellow to blue

C. Red to yellow

D. Red to green

B. Yellow to blue

In SSA test, what is the reporting when there is turbidity with granulation and flocculation?

A. 1+

B. 2+

C. 3+

D. 4+

C. 3+

Which of the following should be done when “pass through phenomenon” is observed when performing Clinitest?

A. Add more drops of urine

B. Heat the urine

C. Use two drops of urine instead of 5 drops

D. NOTA

C. Use two drops of urine instead of 5 drops

Transitional epithelial cells appear in several form

A. Sphericcal

B. Polyhedral

C. Caudate

D. Rectangular

D. Rectangular

What is the possible interpretation when the reagent strip for glucose is 4+ but clinitest is negative?

A. Only small amount of glucose is present

B. Non-glucose reducing substance present

C. Presence of ascorbic acid

D. Presence of oxidizing agent

D. Presence of oxidizing agent

Blondheim’s test is used to differentiate myoglobin and hemoglobin. Hemoglobin is precipitated by hemoglobin ammonium sulfate while myoglobin remains in the supernatant

A. Only the first statement is correct

B. Only the second statement is correct

C. Both true

D. Both false

C. Both true

The most common cause of nephrotic syndrome in children and also associated with HLA and B12 antigen is?

A. FSGS

B. Nil disease

C. IgA nephropathy

D. APSG

B. Nil disease

Which of the following statements regarding the dry reagent strip test for bilirubin is true?

A. A positive test is seen in prehepatic, hepatic, and post hepatic jaundice

B. The test detects only conjugated bilirubin

C. Standing urine may become falsely positive due to bacterial contamination

D. High levels of ascorbate will cause positive interference

B. The test detects only conjugated bilirubin

Which type of microscope enhances visualization of elements with low refractive indices, such as hyaline casts, mixed cellular casts, mucous threads, Trichomonas?

A. Brightfield

B. Darkfield

C. Polarizing

D. Phase-Contrast

Telescoped sediments are the simultaneous occurence of?

A. Casts

B. Crystals

C. Epithelial cells

D. artifacts

A. Casts

The following causes false positive reaction in blood reagent strip except?

A. Oxidising agents

B. Bacterial contamination

C. Menstration

D. Formalin

E. NOTA

D. Formalin

This is a test used to confirm in urine bilirubin reagent strip?

A. Ictotest

B. Acetest

C. SSA

D. Micral test

A. Ictotest

What condition is associated with mousy urine odor?

A. Phenylketonuria

B. Diabetes mellitus

C. Tyrosinemia

D. Methionine malabsorption

A. Phenylketonuria

The following causes acidic urine except:

A. Emphysema

B. High protein diet

C. Diarrhea

D. Renal tubular acidosis

D. Renal tubular acidosis

Which of the following specific gravities would be most likely to correlate with pale yellow urine?

A. 1.005

B. 1.010

C. 1.020

D. 1.030

A. 1.005

A urine specimen is tested by a reagent strip test and the sulfosalicyclic acid test to determine whether protein is present. The former yields a negative protein, whereas the latter results in a reading of 2+ protein. Which of the following statements best explains this difference

A. The urine contained an excessive amount of amorphous urates or phosphates that caused the turbidity seen with the SSA test

B. The urine pH was greater than 8, exceeding the buffering capacity of reagent strop, thus causing a false-negative reaction

C. A protein other than albumin must be present in the urine

D. The reading time of the reagent strip test was exceed (the reading being taken at 2 minutes) causing a false negative reaction to be detected

C. A protein other than albumin must be present in the urine

Which of the following is identified in Watson-Schwartz test:

Results: Extracted in butanol but not in chloroform

A. Urobilinogen

B. Bilirubin

C. Ehrlich reactive compound

D. Porphobilinogen

C. Ehrlich reactive compound

WBC casts are associated with:

A. Pyelonephritis

B. Cystitis

C. Glomerulonephritis

D. Viral infections

A. Pyelonephritis

A squamous epithelial cell that is clinically significant is the:

A. Cuboidal cell

B. Clue cell

C. Caudate cell

D. Columnar cell

B. Clue cell

A random urine specimen collected shortly after the patient ate lunch appeared cloudy. Results of the reagent test strip were normal. The most likely cause of the turbidity is?

A. Bacteria

B. Amorphous phosphate

C. Amorphous urate

D. WBC

B. Amorphous phosphate

Identify this crystal

A. Calcium oxalate

B. Calcium carbonate

C. Uric acid

D. Sodium urate

B. Calcium carbonate

ESRD is characterized by all of the following except:

A. Hypersthenuria

B. Isosthenuria

C. Azotemia

D. Electrolyte imbalance

A. Hypersthenuria

A patient with partially compensated respiratory alkalosis would have a urine pH of:

A. 4.5 - 5.5

B. 5.5 - 6.5

C. 6.5 - 7.5

D. 7.5 - 8.5

D. 7.5 - 8.5

Which crystal appears in urine as long, thin, hexagonal plate, and is linked to ingestion of large amounts of benzoic acid?

A. Cystine

B. Hippuric acid

C. Oxalic acid

D. Uric acid

B. Hippuric acid

Container capacity for routine urinalysis?

A. 50 mL

B. 60 mL

C. 10-15 mL

D. 30-45 mL

A. 50 mL

In 3 glass collection, the second specimen has significant bacteriurua and WBC. This indicates?

A. Prostatic infection

B. Cystitis

C. Normal

D. AIN

B. Cystitis

Hemoglobin in urine can be differentiated from myoglobin by using:

A. 80% ammonium sulfate to precipitate hemoglobin

B. Sodium dithionite to reduce hemoglobin

C. o-Diansidine instead of benzidine as the color indicator

D. The dry reagent strip blood test

A. 80% ammonium sulfate to precipitate hemoglobin

Chloride is actively transported in the ___

A. PCT

B. ALH

C. CD

D. DLG

B. ALH

Cabbage hops urine odor is associated in what condition

A. Methionine malabsorption

B. Hawkinsinuria

C. Tyrosinemia

D. ATN

A. Methionine malabsorption

Which of the following is the reagent used in reagent strip for protein determination?

A. tetrabromophenol blue

B.p-arsinilic acid

C. tetramethylbenzidine

D. sodium nitroprusside

A. tetrabromophenol blue

This urine sediment is the most common contaminant from gloves and is characterized by having a dimpled center

A. Fiber

B. Pollen

C. Starch

D. Air bubble

True of intracranial hemmorrhage

I). It is negative for D-dimer test

II). It has xanthochromic supernatant

III). It has no clot formation

IV). It has even distribution of blood on the tubes

A. One of these

B. Two of these

C. Three of these

D. All of these

C. Three of these

A patient with a blood glucose of 120 mg/dL would have a normal CSF glucose of:

A. 20 mg/dL

B. 60 mg/dL

C. 80 mg/dL

D. 120 mg/dL

C. 80 mg/dL

In WHO criteria, what is the grading of sperm motility when there is slow forward progression, noticeable lateral movement?

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

E. e

B. b

When using Kruger’s strict criteria when examining sperm morphology, atleast how many percent of normal forms is considered normal?

A. 10%

B. 30%

C. >14%

D. 5%

C. >14%

Which of the following is a possible abnormality when sperm analysis is normal but with continued infertility?

A. Lack of seminal vesicle support medium

B. Presence of male anti-sperm antibodies

C. Lack of fructose

D. Presence of female anti-sperm antibodies

D. Presence of female anti-sperm antibodies

Given the following information, calculate the sperm concentration: dilution, 1:20; sperm counted in five RBC squares on each side of the hemocytometer, 80 and 86; volume, 3 mL

A. 80 million/mL

B. 83 million/mL

C. 86 million/mL

D. 169 million/mL

B. 83 million/mL

The first 4 to 5 mL of the synovial fluid obtained should be placed into ____?

A. EDTA

B. Heparin

C. Sterile Heparin

D. Plain tube

D. Plain tube

Which of the following is used as a diluent when performing WBC count in a synovial fluid sample?

A. Acetic acid

B. Normal saline

C. Hypertonic solution

D. AOTA

B. Normal saline

Pleural fluid: serum LD ratio is 0.7. The fluid is most likely a _____

A. Transudate

B. Exudate

C. Either

D. Neither

B. Exudate

Amniotic fluid specimen for Fetal Lung Maturity test is stored at what temperature

A. Body temp

B. Ref temp

C. Room temp

D. 18 C

B. Ref temp

Which of the following best represents a hemothorax?

A. Blood HCT: 42 Fluid HCT: 15

B. Blood HCT: 42 Fluid HCT: 10

C. Blood HCT: 30 Fluid HCT: 10

D. Blood HCT: 30 Fluid HCT: 20

D. Blood HCT: 30 Fluid HCT: 20

What is the significance when the color of the amniotic fluid is dark green?

A. Meconium

B. Fetal death

C. HDN

D. Intraamniotic hemorrhage

A. Meconium

Which of the following test is used to confirm neural tube defect diagnosis after elevated levels AFP?

A. Acetylcholinesterase

B. Lecithin

C. Sphingomyelin

D. Lamellar body

A. Acetylcholinesterase

The following may cause black stool except?

A. Iron therapy

B. Upper GIT bleeding

C. Lower GIT bleeding

D. Bismuth

C. Lower GIT bleeding

Olive green color of sputum might indicate ______

A. Cancer

B. Klebsiella pneumoniae infection

C. Congestive heart failure

D. Anthracosis

A. Cancer

If only one tube of CSF is received from the laboratory, what section should the specimen go first?

A. Hematology

B. Chemistry

C. Microbiology

D. CM

C. Microbiology

What is the major contributor to the amniotic fluid after the first trimester of pregnancy?

A. Fetal urine

B. From maternal circulation

C. Either

D. Neither

A. Fetal urine

What is the most likely cause of the following CSF results?

CSF glucose 20 mg/dL; CSF protein 200 mg/dL

CSF lactate 50 mg/dL (reference range 5-25 mg/dL)

A. Viral meningitis

B. Viral encephalitis

C. Cryptococcal meningitis

D. Acute bacterial meningitis

D. Acute bacterial meningitis

What is the classification of the joint disorder that is being described?

CLEAR, yellow fluid - degenerative joint; GOOD viscosity

WBCs <1,000 uL

Neutrophils <30%

NORMAL glucose level

A. Non-inflammatory

B. Septic

C. Inflammatory

D. Hemorrhagic

A. Non-inflammatory

In bacterial meningitis, CSF glucose is elevated. Levels of CSF lactate in the other is decreased

A. Only the first statement is correct

B. Only the second statement is correct

C. Both true

D. Both false

D. Both false

In CSF collection, the 2nd tube is used for ____ testing and stored at ____ temperature

A. Chemistry testing; freezing temp

B. Cell count; ref temp

C. Microbiology; Room temp

D. Microbiology; ref temp

C. Microbiology; Room temp

A web-like pellicle in a refrigerated CSF specimen indicates:

A. Tubular meningitis

B. Multiple sclerosis

C. CNS malignancy

D. Viral meningitis

A. Tubular meningitis

What does CASA stands for?

A. Computer Assisted Semen Analysis

B. Computer Assisted Sperm Analysis

C. Computer Age of Sperm Analysis

D. Computer Analyzed Semen Analysis

A. Computer Assisted Semen Analysis

The finding of oligoclonal bands in the CSF and not in the serum is seen in:

A. Multiple myeloma

B. CNS malignancy

C. Multiple sclerosis

D. Viral infections

C. Multiple sclerosis

What is the required tube type for cell counts in synovial fluid testing

A. Sodium heparin

B. Liquid EDTA

C. Sodium fluoride

D. A and B

E. A and C

D. A and B

Before testing, very viscous synovial fluid should be treated with:

A. Normal saline

B. Hyaluronidase

C. Distilled water

D. Hypotonic saline

B. Hyaluronidase

CSF can be differentiated from serum by the presence of:

A. Albumin

B. Globulin

C. Transthyretin

D. Tau transferrin

D. Tau transferrin

Staining sperm cells can be performed using

A. Wrights stain

B. Giemsa, wrights’ stain

C. Wright’s, Giemsa, Shoor or Papanicolaou stain

D. Giemsa

C. Wright’s, Giemsa, Shoor or Papanicolaou stain

What is the reagent used in mucin clot test?

A. 2-5% acetic acid

B. Hyaluronidase

C. HCl

D. Acetone

A. 2-5% acetic acid

When severe HDFN is present, which of the following tests on the amniotic fluid would the physician not order to determine whether the fetal lungs are mature enough to withstand a premature delivery?

A. AFP levels

B. Foam stability index

C. Lecithin/sphingomyelin ratio

D. Phosphatidyl glycerol detection

Which of the following are reported as number lpf?

A. RBCs

B. WBCs

C. Crystals

D. Casts

D. Casts

WBC casts are associated primarily with

A. pyelonephritis

B. cystitis

C. glomerulonephritis

D. viral infections

A. pyelonephritis

In d-xylose test, low levels of d-xylose in the urine indicates?

A. Pancreatitis

B. Malabsorption

C. Maldigestion

B. Malabsorption

Which of the following can be used as a marker for hypoxia?

A. CSF lactate

B. CSF glucose

C. CSF glutamate

D. MBP

A. CSF lactate

Highest CSF lactate is seen in which of the following condition?

A. Bacterial meningitis

B. Viral meningitis

C. Tubercular meningitis

D. Fungal meningitis

A. Bacterial meningitis

Semen usually liquefy within:

A. 10-20 minutes

B. 10-30 minutes

C. 30-60 minutes

D. 60-120 minutes

C. 30-60 minutes

Crystals associated with pseudogout are:

A. Monosodium urate

B. Calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate

C. Apatite

D. Corticosteroid

B. Calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate

Detection of the CA 125 tumor marker in peritoneal fluid indicates:

A. Colon cancer

B. Ovarian cancer

C. Gastric malignancy

D. Prostate cancer

B. Ovarian cancer

What should be the value of SAAG to be considered transudate?

A. >1.1

B. <1.1

C. 1

D. 5

A. >1.1

In which condition is the highest level of serum gastrin usually seen?

A. Atrophic gastritis

B. Pernicious anemia

C. Z-E syndrome

D. Cancer of the stomach

C. Z-E syndrome

The first thing to do when a fire is discovered is to:

A. Rescue people in danger

B. Run outside the building

C. Pull the pin

D. Reflect

A. Rescue people in danger

The principle of the colorimetric reagent strip test for hemoglobin is based on the peroxidase activity of hemoglobin in catalyzing the oxidation of a dye with peroxide to form a colored compound. This method may yield false positive results for the presence of hemoglobin when the urine specimen contains

A. Ascorbic acid

B. Tetracycline

C. Myoglobin

D. Nitrite

A. Ascorbic acid

In the Bristol stool chart, what type of stool is like a sausage but with cracks?

A. Type 1

B. Type 2

C. Type 3

D. Type 4

C. Type 3

Which of the following is used to test for fetal age?

A. Lecithin

B. AFP

C. Creatinine

D. Lamellar body count

C. Creatinine

Which of the following is not detected in leukocyte esterase test?

A. Neutrophil

B. Basophil

C. Monocyte

D. Lymphocyte

D. Lymphocyte

Which of the following delineates structure and contrasting colors of the nucleus and cytoplasm

A. Sternheimer-Malbin

B. 2% acetic acid

C. Gram stain

D. Hansel stain

A. Sternheimer-Malbin

Most common fecal contamination seen in urine is ova from ________

A. E. vermicularis

B. T. vaginalis

C. S. haematobium

D. A. lumbricoides

A. E. vermicularis

A significant rise in the OD of amniotic fluid at 450 nm indicates the presence of which analyte?

A. Bilirubin

B. Lecithin

C. Oxyhemoglobin

D. Sphingomyelin

A. Bilirubin

Aka renal failure casts

A. Broad cast

B. Waxy cast

C. RBC cast

D. Mixed cellular cast

A. Broad cast