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Last updated 2:34 AM on 3/19/26
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130 Terms

1
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What characterizes the secondary structure of a protein?

Helix or beta sheets

2
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What is the quaternary structure of a protein?

The overall structure formed by multiple polypeptide chains connected by loops

3
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What are fluorescent proteins useful for?

Biomedical applications

4
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Where are fluorescent proteins located in the molecule?

In the geometric center

5
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What tripeptide forms the fluorescent protein?

Ser-Tre-Gly

6
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What type of reaction forms the fluorescent protein?

An autocatalytic reaction in the presence of O2

7
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What is GFP in solution?

Monomeric (green fluorescence protein)

8
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How are fusion proteins typically introduced into cells?

As DNA constructs

9
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What is a cloning vector used for?

Expression of GFP fusion proteins in mammalian cells

10
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What must be modified to create a fusion protein?

Stop codons

11
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What does actin form in the cell?

Fibre-like structures providing stability

12
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What doe you need for double labelling of protein skeleton?

Creation of a second pigment colour

13
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What is IMAC?

Immobilized metal ion affinity chromatography

14
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What are alternative methods to IMAC?

GST tagging and immunoprecipitation

15
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How can histidine be replaced in protein purification?

By adding imidazole or protons

16
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What is the purpose of gel filtration chromatography?

To purify proteins by size (large molecules elute first)

17
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What is a limitation of tetrameric protein structures?

Increased size prevents them from passing through membranes

18
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What is recombinant DNA?

DNA molecules formed by human intervention in the laboratory through genetic recombination of genetic material from different sources

19
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What is the purpose of DNA cloning?

To isolate a DNA fragment and propagate it without altering the original DNA sequence for analysis, protein expression, or in vitro manipulation

20
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What are the basic steps in DNA cloning?

1. Isolation of target DNA fragments. 2. Ligation of inserts into a cloning vector. 3. Transformation of recombinant plasmids into hosts. 4. Screening/selection of hosts with the intended plasmid.

21
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What is a vector in genetic engineering?

A DNA molecule used to transfer a DNA fragment into a host cell, providing control elements for replication and expression

22
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What are the most commonly used vectors for cloning?

Bacterial plasmids

23
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What is the ORI?

Origin of replication

- needed within a plasmid to allow for replication

24
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What does the AmpR region in a plasmid do?

It serves as a selectable marker for identifying bacteria that have taken up the plasmid

25
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What is the function of the specific ORI -> pUC?

It is a specific origin of replication that produces many copies of the plasmid per cell

26
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What is the role of the MCS (multiple cloning site)?

It contains many recognition sites for restriction enzymes

27
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What is the promoter region in a plasmid?

Switches on the gene of interest once added

28
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What is the purpose of restriction enzymes in cloning?

To create sticky ends or compatible ends for ligation of DNA fragments

29
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What is ligation in the context of DNA cloning?

The process of sealing a DNA fragment into a vector to create a permanent insertion

30
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What methods can be used for transformation of plasmids into bacteria?

Chemical transformation (e.g., heat shock) and electroporation (using electric shock)

31
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How is selective pressure applied in cloning?

By using an antibiotic to kill cells that do not contain the plasmid

32
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What is the first method for identifying bacterial clones with plasmids?

Selection via antibiotic resistance screening

33
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What is the second method for identifying bacterial cells with recombinant plasmids?

White/blue screening, where blue colonies do not contain the insert, while white colonies do

34
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What is the significance of creating sticky ends during restriction?

It ensures that the vector is going in the right direction for ligation

35
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What is the role of phenol in DNA isolation?

It is an organic solvent used to isolate target DNA fragments

36
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What does the term 'transformation' refer to in genetic engineering?

The process of introducing recombinant plasmids into host cells

37
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What is the ideal length of a primer pair?

18-30 nucleotides

38
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What is the target annealing temperature for primers?

60 degC

39
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What should be the GC content of primers?

Around 50% (40-60%)

40
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How should GC content be distributed in a primer?

Evenly distributed throughout the sequence as they have stronger bonds to break

41
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What should the 3' end of a primer have to promote binding?

TLC (thymidine, leucine, cytosine)

Should have a C or G to promote binding

42
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What is the requirement for primers in relation to the target sequence?

Primers must be homologous to the chosen sequence and nowhere else

43
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In which direction should primers be stored?

5' to 3' direction

44
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What is the role of MgCl in a PCR reaction?

It is a co-element for DNA polymerase synthesis

45
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What acts as a template in a PCR reaction?

Genomic DNA

46
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What types of primers are needed for PCR?

A forward and a reverse primer

47
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What are DDNTPs (nucleotides) used for?

They are used for Sanger sequencing

48
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Why is a buffer needed in a PCR reaction?

To provide the necessary environment for the in vitro system

49
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What is the purpose of sterile water in PCR?

To ensure no microorganisms are present and to make up a certain volume

50
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What does it mean when it says complete amplification

It means you need to amplify everything

51
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What should be labeled in a set of primers?

3' to 5' ends

52
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What is the requirement for the primers within the sequence?

There should be 1 primer at the beginning and 1 primer at the end of the sequence

53
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What should a primer not finish with?

A

54
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What is the effect of a balanced distribution of GC-rich and AT-rich domains in PCR primer design?

It avoids localized differences in Tm, improving priming

55
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What should be avoided to prevent self-dimers or primer-dimers in PCR?

Intra-primer homology (more than 3 bases complementing within the primer) and inter-primer homology (forward and reverse primers having complementary sequences)

56
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What are restriction enzymes used for?

Cutting DNA sequences

57
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How are restriction enzymes named?

They are named after the species of bacteria from which they are derived

- EcoRI bacteria from e-coli

58
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What conditions affect the activity of restriction enzymes?

Temperature, presence of co-factors, pH, and salt conditions

59
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What is a palindromic sequence in the context of restriction sites?

A palindromic sequence can be read the same forward and backwards, such as at sticky ends

60
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How does the length of a recognition site affect its frequency in a genome?

Longer recognition sites are less frequent than shorter ones, known as the lottery effect

61
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What does RFLP stand for?

Restriction Fragment Length Polymorphism

62
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What is the purpose of RFLP in genetics?

To distinguish individuals based on genetic differences, including variations in restriction enzyme cleavage sites

- detecting genetic variation

- genetic mapping

- disease diagnosis

- DNA fingerprinting

63
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What are the steps involved in the RFLP experimental procedure?

Extraction of DNA, PCR amplification, restriction digest, size-separation by gel electrophoresis, and visualization

64
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What is the significance of the study on Caulerpa taxifolia (Wiedenmann et al. 2001)?

Algae of Australian origin spread invasively through the Mediterranean Sea -> proved it came from an Aquarium strain, not Lessepsian migration -> used DNA fingerprinting

65
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What is DNA sequencing?

The process of determining the nucleic acid sequence of DNA

66
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What is the Sanger sequencing method?

Chain termination method - determining the nucleotide sequence of DNA

67
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What is a key feature of next-generation sequencing (NGS)?

NGS allows the entire genome to be sequenced at once ('massively parallel' sequencing) in an automated process

68
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What is the role of dideoxynucleotides in Sanger sequencing?

They terminate the DNA chain, preventing further nucleotide addition

69
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How are different bases identified in Sanger sequencing?

By using specific fluorescent dyes that correspond to each dideoxynucleotide

70
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What is the purpose of gel electrophoresis in DNA sequencing?

To separate DNA fragments by length for analysis

71
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Which end does deoxyribose terminate?

3' end

72
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What does the BLAST search tool do?

It is used to identify sequences by comparing them against a database

73
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What is a phylogenetic tree?

A diagram that shows the evolutionary relationships among various biological species based on genetic data

74
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What type of symbionts are thought to increase thermal tolerance in corals?

Algal symbionts of the type Symbiodinium ITS2-type D

75
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What is the purpose of using spacer regions in RNA for identifying algae?

Spacer regions are used because they mutate without affecting function, allowing for identification

76
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What is the significance of the study on heat-tolerant coral symbionts?

It investigates the genetic differences that enhance thermal tolerance in corals

77
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What is the role of ethidium bromide in the RFLP process?

It is used for the visualization of DNA fragments after electrophoresis.

78
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What is the main challenge in identifying symbionts visually?

They cannot be visually distinguished from one another

79
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What is the outcome of the PCR amplification of the ITS2 region (Berkelmans and Oppen, 2006)?

It allows for the analysis of specific genetic markers in symbionts of heat-tolerant corals

80
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What is the primary purpose of PCR?

To amplify a DNA fragment from a DNA template.

81
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What enzyme is crucial for the PCR process?

DNA polymerase -> synthesises a new strand of DNA

82
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What are the three main steps of PCR?

Denaturing, primer annealing, and extension.

83
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What occurs during the denaturing step of PCR?

The two strands of DNA are separated by increasing the temperature to break hydrogen bonds.

84
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What happens during the primer annealing step?

The temperature is lowered to allow primers to bind to the template DNA.

85
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What is the result of the extension step in PCR?

DNA polymerase synthesizes new DNA strands complementary to the template.

86
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What is meant by 'exponential amplification' in PCR?

Each cycle of PCR doubles the amount of DNA, leading to rapid increases in DNA quantity.

87
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What is the purpose of electrophoresis after PCR?

To visualize the amplified DNA fragments.

88
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What materials are necessary for conducting PCR?

Gloves, ice, pipettes, microtubes, PCR tubes, and a PCR instrument.

89
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Why is contamination control important in PCR?

To prevent the amplification of incorrect DNA sequences.

90
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What is Taq polymerase and why is it used in PCR?

A thermostable enzyme from Thermus aquaticus, ideal for high-temperature PCR cycles.

91
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What is Pfu polymerase known for?

Its proofreading activity, which increases accuracy in DNA synthesis.

92
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What role does Mg2+ play in PCR?

It acts as a cofactor for DNA polymerase, essential for enzyme activity.

93
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What are dNTPs in the context of PCR?

Deoxynucleotide triphosphates (dATP, dCTP, dGTP, dTTP) are the building blocks for new DNA strands.

94
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What is the significance of using both forward and reverse primers in PCR?

They ensure that both strands of DNA are amplified by providing complementary binding sites.

95
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What is a DNA template in PCR?

The original DNA source from which the target sequence is amplified.

96
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What types of DNA can be used as a template in PCR?

Genomic DNA, cDNA, plasmid DNA, and libraries of molecules.

97
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How does PCR contribute to medical diagnostics?

It allows for the identification of pathogens by amplifying their DNA.

98
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What is the role of the thermal block in a PCR instrument?

It facilitates the cycling of different temperatures required for PCR steps.

99
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What type of bond connects the pentose sugar to the nitrogenous base in a nucleotide?

An N-glycosidic bond.

100
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What type of bond connects the pentose sugar to the phosphate group?

An ester bond.

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