Part 2 VA

The ability to ward off a specific infection or disease, usually as a result of prior exposure and the body's production of antibodies or lymphocytes against one pathogen, is called:

Adaptive immunity

In _____ immunity, the body's reaction to foreign substances is the same regardless of the pathogen, but in _____ immunity, the body's reaction to foreign substances is specific to the particular pathogen present.

Innate; adaptive

Which of the following is not an example of nonspecific (innate) immunity?

Plasma cells / Antibodies

Under an electron microscope, an infectious agent is identified that is not cellular. This must be a:

Virus

Which leukocyte is the first to arrive during the inflammatory response?

Neutrophils

Which leukocyte is most prevalent in blood?

Neutrophils

During the inflammatory response _____ degranulate and release _____.

Mast cells; histamine

Histamine released by mast cells leads to all of the following symptoms except:

Fever

The inflammation response triggers all of the following except:

Antibody production

Exudate produced at a site of inflammation:

Contains fluid, plasma proteins, and white blood cells

A patient has a parasitic worm infection. Upon examination of a blood sample under the microscope, an abundance of granulocytes are present.

Eosinophils

Which of the following terms describes the migration of neutrophils from blood vessels?

Diapedesis

What do monocytes become when they leave the blood and travel to the site of an infection?

Macrophages

When interferon from one cell attaches to a second cell:

It stimulates the second cell to produce antiviral proteins

A patient has an elevated body temperature that has been stable for 48 hours. Which stage of fever are they likely in?

Fastigium (stationary phase)

Unique molecules (usually proteins or large polysaccharides) that are able to bind to a component of the adaptive immune system are termed:

Antigens

Foreign antigens presented on MHC class I molecules:

Are recognized by cytotoxic T-cells

Antigen presentation requires the physical attachment of antigen to a specialized transmembrane _____ called MHC.

Glycoprotein

Helper T-lymphocytes interact with APCs by recognizing:

MHC class II molecules

Which of the following cells does not present antigen with MHC class II?

T- lymphocytes

B-lymphocytes are:

Part of adaptive immunity (white blood cell)

After lymphocytes are formed, they are tested to see if they can bind to foreign antigen and respond to it. In other words, to see if they are:

Immunocompetent

Where do T-lymphocytes mature?

Thymus

T-lymphocytes that have not yet been exposed to its specific foreign antigen are called _____ T-lymphocytes.

Naive

After naive immunocompetent T- and B-lymphocytes are formed, they migrate to:

Secondary lymphoid structures (spleen, lymph nodes)

Typically, a lymphocyte will encounter its first exposure to a foreign antigen in the:

Secondary lymphoid structure

A helper T-lymphocyte becomes activated by a(n):

Antigen-presenting cell (APC)

After leaving the thymus, helper T-cells contain:

CD4

Once activated, helper T-lymphocytes:

Proliferate and differentiate into effector and memory cells

Helper T-lymphocytes secrete _____ to stimulate the proliferation of B-lymphocytes.

Interleukins (cytokines)

Because they come in direct contact with infected cells, the effector response of _____ is referred to as cell-mediated immunity.

Helper T-lymphocytes

The CD8 protein binds:

MHC class I moleculesss

Cytotoxic T-lymphocytes attack:

Infected or abnormal body cells

Cytotoxic T cells interact with target cells by recognizing:

MHC class I molecules

Identify the leukocyte that secretes cytotoxic chemicals (i.e. perforin).

Natural killer cells or cytotoxic T cells

Cytotoxic T-lymphocytes produce a substance called _____, which creates holes in the cell membranes of target cells.

Perforin

If negative selection of T-lymphocytes in the thymus never occurred, what would likely happen?

Autoimmune disorders

Which of the following statements accurately describes the difference between cellular and antibody-mediated immunity?

Cellular immunity uses T-cells; antibody-mediated uses B-cells

Antibodies are _____ produced in response to an antigen.

Proteins

When an antibody binds an antigen, it is binding with its:

Variable region

The _____ region of antibodies helps fix complement and activate other immune cells.

Constant

The process of antibody production after initial exposure to an antigen is known as the _____ response.

PRIMARY

The clumping of blood during a mismatched blood transfusion is due to an action of the antigen-binding region of antibodies called:

Agglutination

Receiving protection from a virus through a vaccine is an example of _____ immunity.

Artificial active

Receiving antivenom to treat a snake bite is an example of _____ immunity.

Artificial PASSIVE

If someone is infected with a virus, resulting in activated and memory B-lymphocytes and T-lymphocytes, they are exhibiting _____ immunity.

Natural active

A hypersensitivity reaction occurs:

When the immune system overreacts to a harmless substance

Arrange the following events in the proper order in which they occur during an allergic response: 1=Symptoms, 2=Sensitized, 3=IgE attaches to mast cells, 4=Antigen binds IgE.

2, 3, 4, 1

The terms "upper respiratory system" and "lower respiratory system" are _____ categorizations of the respiratory system.

Anatomical

Which is not a function of the respiratory system?

Nutrient absorption

Which is not part of the conducting portion of the respiratory system?

Esophagus

The nose contains a single septal cartilage. How many alar cartilages are in the nose?

2

The region of the nasal cavity immediately internal to the nostrils is the _____; it contains coarse guard hairs.

Nasal vestibule

Paranasal sinuses function in warming and humidifying _____, and they are lined with a _____ epithelium.

Air; ciliated

Which bone does not contain a paranasal sinus?

Mandible

The pharyngeal tonsil is located:

Posterior wall of Nasopharynx

What structures are used by both the respiratory and digestive systems?

Oropharynx and laryngopharynx

What structure prevents food and drink from entering the trachea, conducts air, and produces sound?

Larynx

The voice of a genetic male tends to be in a lower range than a genetic female. This is because the males have:

Longer, thicker vocal folds

Mucin _____ the viscosity of mucus, facilitating the _____ of dust and dirt particles.

Increases; trapping

What type of tissue lines the trachea?

Pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium

Another name for a lymphoid follicle is a:

Lymphatic nodule

Terminal bronchioles of the lower respiratory tract are lined with:

Simple cuboidal epithelium

Which of the two lungs is larger and wider?

Right lung

Which is not correct about the left lung?

It has 3 lobes

Bronchial arteries carry _____ blood to the tissues of the lung.

Oxygenated

The hilum of the lung:

Is the indentation where vessels, nerves, and the bronchus enter

On each side of the chest, the _____ pleura lines the internal thoracic wall and the _____ pleura tightly covers the lung.

Parietal; visceral

The most common cell making up the alveolar wall is the:

Type I alveolar cell

Phagocytic cells of the alveolus are the:

Alveolar macrophages (dust cells)

Foreign particles that are not filtered out by the respiratory epithelium are:

Trapped in mucus and moved by cilia to the pharynx

Which answer places the following events in proper order for pulmonary ventilation? a: Thoracic cavity volume changes, b: Brainstem nuclei stimulate skeletal muscles, c: Air flows down pressure gradient, d: Dimensional changes in thorax lead to pressure changes.

b, a, d, c

According to Boyle's law, the pressure of a gas _____ if the volume of its container increases.

Decreases

During expiration, relaxation of the diaphragm and external intercostals:

Decreases thoracic volume and increases intrapulmonary pressure

The lungs remain inflated because:

Intrapleural pressure is lower than intrapulmonary

You may have noticed that after a large meal you have had some difficulty breathing. Which explanation is most accurate with regard to this situation?

A full stomach impedes the contraction of the diaphragm

Two individuals of the same size have a minute ventilation of 6 L/min, but one is breathing 10 breaths/min and the other is breathing 15 breaths/min. How do their alveolar ventilation rates compare?

The slower rate has higher alveolar ventilation

Airway obstruction can lead to hypoventilation, which can cause:

Respiratory acidosis

Hyperventilation causes generalized _____, which _____ blood flow to the brain.

Vasoconstriction; decreases

Sympathetic stimulation of the lungs results in:

Bronchodilation

Which type of receptor initiates the inhalation (or Hering-Breuer) reflex?

Baroreceptors (stretch receptors)

Which statement accurately describes pulmonary gas exchange of oxygen?

Oxygen diffuses from alveoli to blood

Which statement accurately describes pulmonary and tissue gas exchange?

Oxygen diffuses from blood to cells

As blood travels through a systemic capillary and exchanges gases with systemic cells:

PO_2 decreases and PCO_2 increases

An increase in the partial pressure of oxygen causes pulmonary arterioles to _____, thereby altering _____ to make gas exchange more efficient.

Dilate; Perfusion

Approximately what percent of the oxygen in blood is transported by the hemoglobin of erythrocytes?

98%

In addition to oxygen, hemoglobin also transports:

Carbon dioxide and hydrogen ions

Organize the items listed into the proper sequence of events for gas exchange: a: O2 transported to cells, b: O2 is drawn into lungs, c: Cells use O2/generate CO2, d: CO2 is exhaled, e: Circulatory system transports CO2 to lungs.

b, a, c, e, d (Note: Sequence follows the flow of oxygen in and CO2 out)