NDAEB Practice Questions

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Last updated 2:40 AM on 6/15/26
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443 Terms

1
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Who was the first woman to graduate from a recognized dental college?

Lucy B. Hobbs-Taylor

2
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What are the conditions that would indicate the need for restorative dentistry?

- initial or recurring decay

- replacement or failed restorations

- abrasion or wearing away of tooth structure

3
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True or False: Aesthetic dentistry is primarily devoted to improving the appearance of teeth; specific conditions that indicate a need for aesthetic treatment include the replacement of a partial denture.

False

4
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The process of removing unhealthy tooth structure while leaving a limited amount of healthy structure for the tooth to maintain a restoration is known as cavity preparation. This process involves which of the following steps?

- initial preparation

- outline, resistance, retention, convenience form

- final preparation

5
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Responsibilities of the dental assistant in the restorative process can include performing expanded function and maintaining patient control.

True

6
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Class II restorations are found on the....

Posterior teeth

7
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The usual material of choice for class III and Class IV restorations is ...

Composite Resin

8
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The Class V restoration is classified as a smooth surface filling and can be found on the...

- incisors

- canines

- premolars

9
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When are retention pins used as a part of the direct restorative process?

- when decay has extended beyond the normal size and shape of the cavity preparation

- when a stronger system for retaining and supporting the restoration is needed

- when one or more cusps of the tooth is missing

10
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A veneer is a thin layer of tooth-coloured material that is placed on the facial surface of a prepared tooth and is used for:

- improving appearance of teeth that are abraded, eroded or discoloured

- closing a diastema

- improving alignment of teeth

11
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When is tooth whitening or vital bleaching not indicated for a dental patient?

when the patient presents with severe tetracycline and fluorosis stains

12
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A matrix must be used to create a temporary wall for which of the following classifications of tooth restoration?

Class II, III, and V

13
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The most common matrix system used for class II posterior restorations is the...

tofflemire retainer and matrix band

14
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The universal/Tofflemire retainer holds the matrix band snugly in position and is most often positioned...

on the buccal surface of the tooth being restored

15
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The class II restoration requires a matrix band to act as an artificial wall that must make proper contact with the adjacent tooth; this is accomplished by...

- using a wedge

- contouring the centre of the matrix band in the proximal contact area

- the dentists design of the inter proximal cavity preparation

16
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The matrix is used for anterior CR or GI restorations...

Clear Plastic

17
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Coronal Polishing is a technique used:

- to remove plaque and stains from coronal surfaces of the teeth

- before placement of dental sealants and orthodontic bands

- before placement of the dental dam and before acid etching

18
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Patients at high risk for caries or with areas of thin demineralized enamel are contraindications for coronal polishing

True

19
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Coronal polishing is the complete removal of calculus, debris, stains and plaque from the teeth

False

20
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Exogenous stains are caused by an environmental source and are classified into subdivisions, including which of the following:

- Intrinsic stains

- Extrinsic stains

21
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Extrinsic stains can be removed from the teeth by:

- air-powder polishing

- rubber cup polishing

- bristle brushes

22
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The ultrasonic scaler is needed for a coronal polish...

False

23
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Disclosing solution can be used for:

- identifying areas of plaque

- evaluating the effectiveness of the polishing

24
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Teeth with very small initial carious lesions may be sealed, and the bacteria will not survive under a properly placed sealant

True

25
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Sealants have been proved an effective way to prevent the development of dental caries and are indicated:

- through the caries-active period (ages 6-15)

- for teeth with deep pits & fissures

- for some adults

26
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Sealants shouldn't be used in which of the following situations:

- obvious dental decay or proximal surface decay

- primary teeth that will be lost soon

- poor patient cooperation in the dental chair or lack of pits & fissures

27
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Sealants may vary in:

- method of polymerization

- colour

- whether they contain fillers

28
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A general tip for sealant materials is to store them in a refrigerator:

False

29
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The first step in placing dental sealants is to:

clean the surface

30
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A sealant that is polymerized by chemical reactions is called:

Self-Cured

31
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Self-Cured sealant materials are supplied as a two-part system that includes:

- a base

- a catalyst

32
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Dental sealants should be used as part of a preventative program that includes:

- fluorides

- dietary considerations

- plaque control

33
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Enamel that has been etched has the appearance of being:

frosty

34
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Antidepressants are often used in dentistry to alleviate or reduce anxiety and pain

False

35
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The agents that provide a temporary numbing effect on nerve endings located on the surface of the oral mucosa are:

Topical Anesthetics

36
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Topical anesthesia is available in the form of:

- ointments & liquids

- sprays

- patches

37
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The most frequently used form of pain control used in dentistry is:

Local Anesthesia

38
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______ is added to local anesthetic agent to slow down the intake of the agent and increase the duration of action

Vasoconstrictor

39
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The ____ the ratio, the higher the percentage of vasoconstrictor in the anesthetic agent

Smaller

40
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Patients with a hx of heart conditions such as angina, recent heart attack, recent coronary artery bypass surgery, severe hypertension, and untreated or uncontrolled CHF should always use a local anesthetic with a vasoconstrictor

False

41
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The time from when the local anesthetic takes complete effect until the complete reversal of anesthesia is the ___ of the anesthetic agent

duration

42
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A short-acting local anesthetic agent can last from:

60 - 180 minutes

43
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____ is achieved by injecting the anesthetic solution directly into the tissue at the site of a dental procedure and is generally used on the maxillary arch

infiltration anesthesia

44
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_____ is frequently used on the mandibular teeth and is injected near a major nerve that numbs the entire area served by that nerve branch

block anesthesia

45
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The parts of the anesthetic syringe include:

- thumb ring, finger grip, and finger bar

- barrel and threaded tip

- harpoon and piston rod

46
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The colour-coding system for anesthetic cartridges allows the practitioner to select the correct anesthetic solution by distinguishing:

- the correct ratio of solution

- the correct brand of solutions

47
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The lengths of the needles used in dentistry are:

1 and 15/8 inches

48
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The gauge of the needle refers to the thickness of the needle; the larger the gauge, the _______ the needle

thinner

49
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During the loading of an anesthetic syringe, the _____ is loaded first

anesthetic cartridge

50
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To be certain the anesthetic solution is not injected into a blood vessel, the dentist:

- uses an aspirating syringe

- always aspirates before depositing any solution

51
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Anesthetic solutions are extremely effective for patients with a tooth or soft tissue infection..

False

52
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Parathesia, the condition in which numbness lasts after the effects of the local anesthetic solutions should have worn off, may be caused by:

- contaminated anesthetic solution

- trauma/injury to nerve sheath during injection or surgery

- hemorrhage into/around nerve sheath

53
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Nitrous Oxide/Oxygen analgesia use in dentistry dates back to 1844 and is also known as:

Inhalation sedation

54
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An advantage of using nitrous oxide/oxygen is that it is relatively simple to administer and easy to manage..

True

55
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No absolute medical contraindications exist for N2O/O2 analgesia, but certain conditions make it a poor choice for some patients

True

56
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Which of the following must be used to protect dental personnel from the occupational risks of nitrous oxide by reducing the N2O released into the treatment room?

- Scavenger System

- Patient mask that fits well and doesn't leak

57
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Nitrous oxide oxygen administration always begins and ends with:

the patient breathing 100% O2

58
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In the dental office, sedatives may be used:

- for a very nervous patient

- for a procedure that will be long or difficult

- for a mentally challenged patient

59
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A DA can start, monitor and remove IV sedation for a dental patient..

False

60
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General Anesthesia is most safely administered in:

the hospital

61
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The different levels of consciousness and unconsciousness are referred to as stages of anesthesia; these stages include:

- Stage 1 (anesthesia)

- Stage 2 (excitement)

- Stage 3 (general anesthesia)

62
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Documentation records of pain & anxiety analgesia may include:

- review of patients health hx

- time anesthesia began & ended

- adverse events or pt complaints

63
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The most important way to prevent a medical emergency is to be sure the pt has _____ before tx has begun.

completed/updated medical hx

64
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Who is responsible for providing care if a medical emergency involving a patient takes place in the dental office?

- dentist

- DA

- office staff

65
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Every staff member should have an assigned role in an emergency situation & staff members should practice their specific roles once a month before an emergency arises..

True

66
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The list of emergency phone numbers posted next to each phone throughout the office should include:

- police/firefighters

- ems

- nearest hospital, physicians, oral surgeons

67
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A medical emergency can happen at any time, so it is important for the DA to:

be alert and continuously observe pt to watch for problems

68
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A(n) _______ is what a pt tells you regarding how they feel or what they are experiencing; a ______ is what you or the dentist observe in a pt..

Symptom; Sign

69
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Each member of the dental team should be required to have which of the following knowledge and skills before handling an emergency in the dental office?

- ability to obtain & record VS

- current credentials for performing the Heimlich maneuver

- current credentials to perform basic life support, or CPR

70
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The ABCD's of basic life support stand for:

- Airway

- Breathing

- Circulation

- Defibrillation

71
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The cells of the brain are irreversibly damaged after _____ without oxygen.

4-6 minutes

72
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The most important measures in preventing an airway obstruction during dental treatment include:

- use of HVE

- use of dental dam

- placement of a throat pack (gauze placed at the base of throat during surgery)

73
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The AED is used to:

- reestablish proper heart rhythm by defibrillation

- shock the heart

- monitor the pt's heart rhythm

74
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When defibrillation is provided within the first 4 minutes of cardiac arrest, there is about a _____ chance that you can save the victims life..

50 %

75
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The DA's responsibility in an emergency situation is:

- recognize signs & symptoms of a significant medical complaint

- to provide appropriate support in implementing emergency procedures

76
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When assessing a medical emergency, the DA should remember that the physical changes observed can include:

- unconsciousness

- convulsions

- respiratory distress

77
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A reduction in blood flow to the brain that would cause the pt to lose consciousness is called:

Syncope/Fainting

78
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Treatment for Syncope may include:

- ammonia inhalant

- placing pt in a sub-supine position

- calling 911

79
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Symptoms of an acute myocardial infarction include:

- short of breath

- nausea/vomiting

- mildi-severe chest pain

80
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_______, which is precipitated by stress & anxiety, may manifest in rapid & shallow breathing, lightheadedness, rapid heartbeat and a panic-stricken appearance and is treated by having the pt breathe into a paper bag or cupped hands?

Hyperventilation

81
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Anaphylaxis can be life threatening and the signs and symptoms include:

- nausea/vomiting

- loss of consciousness

- shortness of breath

82
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A medical emergency in the dental office must be documented with all of the pertinent details (including extensive notes about what happened, tx provided, and pt's condition when they left the office), and a report must be filed with the local EMS..

False

83
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The study of oral pathology is important for the dental assistant:

to recognize the difference between normal and abnormal conditions

84
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The dentist must consider many sources of information when making a final diagnosis. The sources include:

- historical, clinical & radiographic

- laboratory, surgical & therapeutic

- microscopic & differential findings

85
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A broad term for abnormal tissues in the oral cavity is:

a lesion

86
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Which of the following types of lesions extends above the mucosal surface?

Blister

87
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A benign tumor is:

- not life threatening

- a neoplasm

88
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A general term that literally means "white patch" is:

Leukoplakia

89
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The common term for aphthous ulcer is:

a canker sore

90
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_______ is the general term used to describe inflammation & changes to the tongue.

Glossitis

91
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Warning signs of oral cancer include:

- any sore in the mouth that doesn't heal

- numbness in or around the oral cavity

- white or rough-textured lesions on the lips or oral cavity

92
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Smokeless tobacco presents a serious health hazard because users may have:

- high rates of periodontal disease & tooth loss

- precancerous leukoplakia

- 400 - 500 times more cancers of the pharynx, larynx & esophagus

93
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Oral manifestations of HIV/AIDS can include:

- HIV Gingivitis

- Kaposi's Sarcoma

- Hairy Leukoplakia

94
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When cells of the body divide and a deformity of a part of the body occurs, it is:

a developmental disorder

95
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A condition characterized by abnormally large jaws is:

Macrognathia

96
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The condition known as __________ refers to any teeth in excess of the 32 normal permanent teeth.

Supernumerary teeth

97
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A hereditary abnormality in which there are defects in the enamel formation is:

Amelogenesis Imperfecta

98
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Any tooth that remains unerupted in the jaws beyond the time at which it should normally erupt is referred to as:

Impacted

99
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An oral habit consisting of involuntary gnashing, grinding & clenching of the teeth is:

Bruxism

100
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Why may orofacial piercings be dangerous?

- teeth could be cracked & nerve damage could occur

- infection & uncontrollable bleeding could occur

- the tongue could swell & close off the airway