Microbiology Chapter 7 and 9 quiz and study guide for Final

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Last updated 3:11 AM on 5/4/26
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71 Terms

1
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Which of the following terms refers to bacteria reproducing asexually, creating two daughter cells by dividing the cell in half?

binary fission

2
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Extreme thermophiles that live near thermal vents must have all of the following adaptations except

plasma membrane lipids that are highly unsaturated.

3
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Which of the following pH classifications would be able to grow in a pickle jar with vinegar?

acidophiles

4
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Which of the following pH classifications make up most of the pathogens we know today?

neutralophiles

5
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Which of the following terms refers to microbes that thrive in high-salt environments?

halophiles

6
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How do halophiles combat osmotic stress?

They keep a high concentration of organic materials and ions in their cytoplasm.

7
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Staphylococcus aureus tolerates higher solute concentrations but doesn't grow especially well in them. Therefore, it is called a

facultative halophile.

8
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Which group of microbes prefers using oxygen but can survive without it?

facultative anaerobe

9
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Microbes that primarily infect the lungs are likely to be classified as which of the following?

obligate aerobe or facultative anaerobe

10
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Nutrients that a cell needs to build new cells and make up a bulk of a cell's dry weight are called

essential nutrients.

11
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Mycobacterium tuberculosis are grown for 80 hours. During that time, they go through four generations of growth. What is the generation time?

20 hours

12
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The necessary substances that a cell can't make on its own are called

growth factors.

13
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Which type of organism gets energy from breaking down nutrients and uses CO2 as a carbon source?

chemoautotroph

14
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When would a microbiologist want to use broth media?

when growing large batches of microbes

15
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Which type of organism would a microbiologist grow on defined media?

certain autotrophs

16
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Which type of media has ingredients that foster the growth of certain bacteria while suppressing the growth of others?

selective

17
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When would a microbiologist use thioglycolate?

when storing plates anaerobically

18
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Which of the following could result in the wrong patient diagnosis and improper treatment?

using a cotton-tipped swab to collect a suspected pathogen

19
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What is the purpose of the streak plate technique?

to obtain a pure culture from a mixed or unknown source

20
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Which of the following cell-counting methods is capable of differentiating between living and dead cells?

flow cytometer

21
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Which of the following is an indirect cell-counting method?

turbidity measurement

22
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In which growth phase do bacteria grow exponentially?

log phase

23
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A chemical used to control microbial growth on inanimate objects is called a(n)

disinfectant.

24
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The minimum temperature needed to kill all microbes in a sample within ten minutes is called the

thermal death point.

25
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Which of the following methods would surgical staff use to disinfect surfaces in operating rooms?

non-ionizing radiation

26
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Which of the following factors does not affect the efficiency of a germicide?

how the object is used

27
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Which of the following microbes is not correctly matched to an acceptable control method?

Prions: Chlorine treatment

28
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When bacteria use budding for reproduction,

the daughter cells are not equal in size.

29
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How would humans (and many microbes that inhabit the human body) be best described in terms of nutritional requirements?

chemoheterotroph

30
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A patient sample from an infected wound was cultured on medium containing high salt so that only halophilic organisms could grow. In addition, the medium contains mannitol (a sugar alcohol) and phenol red dye that indicates whether or not fermentation of mannitol has taken place by changing to a yellow color as the pH drops. This type of media would best be described as

selective AND differential medium.

31
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In which growth phase do bacteria adjust to their environment and grow little, if any?

lag phase

32
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In which growth phase do bacteria produce antibiotics and endospores?

stationary phase

33
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Which of the following is not an environmental factor that would affect the growth of E. coli?

generation time of E. coli

34
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Which term represents the temperature at which bacteria grow the fastest?

optimal temperature

35
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Which of the following types of organisms is associated with foodborne illness?

psychrotrophs

36
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Which temperature group are most pathogens associated with?

mesophiles

37
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What is the definition of a true pathogen?

does not require a weakened host to cause disease

38
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It is called a ________ vector when the vector has a role in the pathogen's life cycle.

biological

39
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What is the order of the five stages of infectious disease?

incubation period, prodromal phase, acute phase, period of decline, convalescent phase

40
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If you had to choose to be either a chronic carrier or an asymptomatic carrier, which would you choose and why?

asymptomatic carrier because I wouldn't experience any symptoms

41
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When is knowing the host and environmental factors that lead to a disease more important to saving lives than knowing the etiological causative agent?

when there is no cure for the disease

42
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What are the three factors of the epidemiological triangle?

environmental factors, etiological agent, and host factors

43
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Which of the following is not a goal of the public health system?

designs treatments, cures, or vaccines

44
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When is quarantine an effective tool to limit disease?

when the disease has a short incubation time

45
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Why are numerical measures of epidemiological data useful?

They provide insight as to where public health campaigns or prevention efforts may be needed most.

46
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Which of the following would not be important when evaluating measures of frequency?

factors that may be linked to cases of the disease

47
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Endemic infections

are routinely detected in a population or region.

48
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Which of the following would not be important when evaluating measures of association?

duration of the disease

49
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If a population contains 800 individuals and documents 400 cases of measles within the population, what is the prevalence rate?

50%

50
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What is the definition of morbidity?

existence of disease

51
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Which of the following is an example of a rate?

About 4,932 people become infected with HIV each day.

52
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Which of the following statements is not correct with respect to healthcare-acquired infections?

Due to the installation of hand sanitizing dispensers in hospitals, healthcare-acquired infections decreased significantly in the past several years.

53
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Which of the following does not help to limit the spread of healthcare-acquired infections?

transporting patients as often as possible to keep the healthy patients away from the sick patients

54
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Which of the following key HAI's is not associated with its correct cause?

Clostridioides difficile: Causes acute illness that is followed by a high risk of chronic infection that causes severe liver damage and increases the risk of liver cancer

55
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Which of the following is not a reason why healthcare settings are hot zones for antibiotic-resistant pathogens?

Air is recirculated from patient isolation rooms to the rest of the hospital.

56
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When a healthcare provider diagnoses a reportable disease, with whom do they document the case?

local or state public health authority

57
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What is a pandemic?

a widespread disease outbreak that spreads to numerous countries during a specific time frame

58
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What are emerging diseases?

new or newly identified infections in a population

59
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Which of the following is not a reason(s) that we see an increased rate of disease emergence worldwide?

decreased water quality

60
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What is the epidemiological definition of eradication of an infectious disease?

There are no longer any cases of the microbe anywhere in the world for three consecutive years.

61
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Which of the following is not a way that ethical issues emerge in epidemiology?

more visible infections noticeable in the community

62
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What is herd immunity?

the only protection available to those who are unable to receive immunizations due to medical reasons

63
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Why are Koch's postulates not appropriate to use for diseases caused by obligate intracellular pathogens such as viruses?

because obligate intracellular pathogens require growth inside a host cell and cannot be independently cultured

64
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In the 1950s, it was observed that polio spread more widely during the summer months, when children were out of school and ice-cream trucks were commonly seen in neighborhoods. The media reported that an increase in polio in school-aged children could be directly correlated with an increase in the consumption of ice cream during the summer, causing ice cream sales to plummet. What conclusion can be drawn from these observations?

No evidence for causation between consumption of ice cream and an increase in polio should be assumed from these data—more research is needed.

65
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In the year 2000, measles was declared eradicated from the U.S. (no transmission of the virus observed for 12 consecutive months). However, in the year 2019, according to the CDC, there were 1282 cases reported in the U.S. How would the measles virus be best described?

a reemerging pathogen

66
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How is a reemerging pathogen different from an emerging pathogen?

A reemerging pathogen is an infectious agent that was under control due to prevention or treatment strategies but is now resurfacing.

67
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Why are Koch's postulates important to microbiology?

They allow us to identify the causative pathogens of many infectious diseases.

68
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Which of the following pathogenic agents is multicellular?

helminths

69
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Which of the following is an endogenous source of infection?

bacteria from the skin entering a surgical incision

70
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Which of the following is an indirect infectious disease transmission mode?

vehicle

71
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Which of the following infectious disease transmission modes is not correctly paired with an example?

Windborne: Cholera