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What are the minimum components of a virus?
Nucleic acid genome (either DNA or RNA)
Protein capsid (shell surrounding the genome)
What additional components may be present in some viruses (but not all)?
Envelope (lipid membrane)
Glycoprotein spikes
Viral enzymes (polymerases, replicases, reverse transcriptase)
Where do enveloped viruses obtain their membrane (envelope)?
From the host cell membrane during viral release
In viral replication, what occurs during Step 1: Adsorption (attachment)?
The virus binds to specific receptors on the surface of a susceptible host cell
In viral replication, what happens during Step 2: Penetration (entry and uncoating)?
The virus enters the host cell, and the capsid is removed to release the viral nucleic acid
In viral replication, what occurs during Step 3: Synthesis?
The host cell machinery is used to produce viral nucleic acid and viral proteins
In viral replication, what happens during Step 4: Assembly?
Newly synthesized viral components are assembled into complete virions.
In viral replication, what occurs during Step 5: Release?
Newly formed viruses exit the host cell, either by budding (enveloped viruses) or cell lysis
How are complete virus particles (virions) put together?
Assembly, during which newly synthesized viral nucleic acid and capsid proteins self-assemble into intact infectious particles.
Define cytopathic effect (CPE):
Virus‑induced damage that alters the microscopic appearance of host cells
Define oncogenicity:
The ability of a virus to induce cancer
Which type of cancer is associated with Epstein‑Barr virus (EBV)?
Burkitt lymphoma
Which cancer is associated with Human herpesvirus 8 (KSHV)?
Kaposi sarcoma
What type of cancer is linked to Hepatitis B virus (HBV) infection?
Hepatocellular carcinoma
Which cancers are associated with certain papillomaviruses (HPV)?
Cervical cancer and penile cancer
What type of cancer is associated with HTLV‑1?
Leukemia
What cancer is associated with Hepatitis C virus (HCV)?
Liver cancer
Define teratogenic:
Capable of causing birth defects by crossing the placenta
Which teratogenic virus is responsible for causing congenital infection when transmitted from mother to fetus and can lead to birth defects?
HIV
Which teratogenic virus is associated with congenital rubella syndrome and birth defects when infection occurs during pregnancy?
Rubella
Which teratogenic virus commonly causes congenital infections and severe complications in fetuses and newborns?
Cytomegalovirus (CMV)
In virology, what is a latent viral infection (as discussed in relation to the lytic cycle and viruses in general)?
The virus enters a dormant phase inside host cells, produces no symptoms, and may reactivate at a later time.
What type of virus causes Smallpox (Variola)—DNA or RNA?
Enveloped DNA virus
What type of skin lesions are produced during Smallpox (Variola) infection?
Eruptive skin pustules called pox (pocks).
How was Smallpox (Variola) eradicated worldwide?
Through global vaccination using the vaccinia virus as part of a WHO effort.
What does it mean when a disease is said to be eradicated?
The disease has been eliminated worldwide, with no naturally occurring cases remaining.
What type of viruses are herpesviruses, and what common clinical feature do they tend to cause?
Herpesviruses are enveloped DNA viruses that tend to cause a rash that spreads or “creeps.”
What does HSV stand for, and what infections does it cause?
Herpes simplex virus, which causes oral and genital herpes.
What does VZV stand for, and what diseases does it cause?
Varicella‑zoster virus, which causes chickenpox and shingles.
What does CMV stand for, and what infection does it cause?
Cytomegalovirus, which causes cytomegalovirus infection.
What does EBV stand for, and what disease does it cause?
Epstein‑Barr virus, which causes infectious mononucleosis.
What do HHV‑6 and HHV‑7 cause?
Roseola.
What does KSHV stand for, and what condition is it associated with?
Kaposi sarcoma–associated herpesvirus, which causes Kaposi sarcoma.
Herpesviruses are very common, and most people encounter at least some of them in their lifetime. For which group of people are these infections more likely to cause serious illness?
Immunocompromised individuals, especially those with AIDS.
Herpes Simplex Virus 1 (HSV-1) is usually characterized by lesions on what part(s) of the body?
Oropharynx, lips, mouth (cold sores)
Herpes Simplex Virus 2 (HSV-2) is usually characterized by lesions on what part(s) of the body?
Genitalia, perineum, buttocks
What systemic symptoms can occur during an HSV‑2 infection?
Painful vesicles
Which genitourinary (pee + reproduction) symptoms may appear in HSV‑2 infections
Dysuria (painful urination) and cervicitis (inflamed cervix)
What happens to HSV‑2 lesions before they heal
They ulcerate prior to healing
How is neonatal herpes acquired
It is acquired during vaginal delivery from an infected mother
Which herpesvirus type is most commonly implicated in neonatal herpes
HSV‑2 is most common
Varicella‑Zoster Virus (VZV) is a member of which virus family
It is a member of the herpesviruses
What disease is caused by Herpes varicella
Chickenpox
What disease is caused by Herpes zoster as a recurrent infection
Shingles
How can varicella be transmitted from person to person
Respiratory droplets
Fluid from skin lesions
How long is the incubation period for varicella
10–20 days
When is a person with varicella considered contagious
1–2 days before the rash appears
What systemic symptom is associated with vcv (Varicella‑Zoster Virus)
Fever
What type of rash is associated with varicella
Abundant vesicular rash
What happens to varicella lesions as they resolve
Crusting and healing of lesions
Shingles (herpes zoster) occurs when the dormant virus reemerges. In what cells does this virus exist in a latent form?
Sensory neuron ganglia
What condition may cause the herpes zoster virus to become active and lead to shingles
Immunosuppression
What medical condition may trigger herpes zoster (shingles) reactivation
Cancer
What event may trigger herpes zoster to become active
Surgery
What type of medical treatment may cause herpes zoster reactivation
X‑ray treatments
What type of therapy may cause herpes zoster to become active
Drug therapy
What cellular changes are characteristic of CMV (Cytomegalovirus) infection
Cells become enlarged (giant) with nuclear and cytoplasmic inclusions
How common is CMV (Cytomegalovirus) in humans
It is one of the most common human infections
How is CMV (Cytomegalovirus) spread through the upper body
Saliva
Respiratory mucus
Which bodily fluids involved in infants and children can spread CMV (Cytomegalovirus)
Milk
Urine
Which reproductive secretions can transmit CMV (Cytomegalovirus)
Semen
Cervical secretions
Because CMV (Cytomegalovirus) can remain latent, many healthy adults are asymptomatic carriers
True
What populations are at an increased risk for severe, disseminated CMV (Cytomegalovirus) infection?
Fetuses
Newborns
Immunodeficient adults
Organ transplant patient
What lymphatic disease is caused by Epstein‑Barr Virus
Mononucleosis
By midlife, what do most people show regarding EBV (Epstein–Barr virus)
Serological evidence of infection
What complication of EBV (Epstein–Barr virus) infection primarily affects central African children ages 4–8
Burkitt lymphoma
Why are central African children more susceptible to EBV (Epstein–Barr virus) ‑induced Burkitt lymphoma
Chronic coinfection with malaria weakens the immune system, increasing susceptibility to EBV‑induced B‑cell malignancy
Which hepatitis virus is a DNA virus
Hepatitis B (HBV)
Which hepatitis viruses are RNA viruses
Hepatitis A (HAV) and Hepatitis C (HCV)
What do HAV, HBV, and HCV all cause
Hepatitis
What is the endemic status of HAV, HBV, and HCV in the U.S.
All are endemic in the United States
What is a typical incubation period for HAV, HBV, and HCV
Approximately one month
How can HAV, HBV, and HCV be differentiated
By diagnostic testing
Hepatitis viruses target which cells
Hepatocytes (liver cells)
What can happen when hepatocytes are damaged
Bilirubin can accumulate
What condition results from bilirubin buildup causing yellow skin
Jaundice
Which hepatitis viruses have vaccines available for prevention?
Hepatitis A
Hepatitis B
Which hepatitis virus has a relatively short duration with mild jaundice, and is transmitted through the fecal-oral route?
Hepatitis A
Who is especially vulnerable to HBV due to sexual exposure
People with multiple sexual partners
Which behavior significantly elevates the risk of HBV (Hep B Virus) transmission
Injection drug use
What type of exposure can lead to HBV infection
Exposure to infected blood
Which work environments place individuals at higher risk for HBV
Occupations involving potential blood exposure
Chronic HBV infection increases the risk for developing what?
Hepatocellular carcinoma
There are a number of ways to treat HBV infections, including treating the symptoms, antivirals, and recombinant interferon. How can a patient be provided passive artificial immunity to HBV?
Hepatitis B immune globulin (HBIG)
Hepatitis C, is referred to as the “silent epidemic”. Why?
Often asymptomatic for years
How did blood transfusions before 1985 contribute to HCV (Hepatitis C virus) spread
no HCV screening existed, so transfusions were a major route of HCV transmission
What behavior is a major driver of HCV (Hepatitis C virus) transmission
Sharing needles
Which type of exposure can easily transmit HCV
Direct contact with infected blood from someone infected w/ HCV (Hepatitis C virus)
What condition can HPV (Human papillomavirus) infection lead to
Genital warts (sexually transmitted)
Which HPV (Human Papillomavirus) strains have been identified as the major cancer‑associated types
HPV‑16 and HPV‑18
These high‑risk HPV strains are most strongly linked to which cancers
Cervical cancer and penile cancer
In addition to genital areas, warts caused by various strains of HPV can be found on any mucous membrane or skin surface. What are some treatment options for removal of warts?
Podophyllin
Cauterization
Freezing
Laser surgery
What other ways can warts be transmissible?
Direct contact
Fomites
Autoinoculation
The Influenza virus has three distinct types, Influenza A, Influenza B, and Influenza C. Which of these three is primarily responsible for seasonal outbreaks associated with influenza?
Influenza A
What role does hemagglutinin play during influenza infection
Attachment to host cells and viral entry
How does neuraminidase assist the influenza virus
It enables viral release and breaks down mucus
Define antigenic shift:
Exchange of viral genes from animal influenza strains
Define antigenic drift:
Gradual mutations over time
What animal reservoir(s) harbor the influenza virus and contribute to constant antigenic shifting?
Birds and pigs
What is the primary way influenza moves between people
Respiratory droplets