MICRO 3201 Final Lab Exam Auburn University

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Last updated 6:52 PM on 4/20/26
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161 Terms

1
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Where do you dispose of gloves?

Biohazard

2
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Where do you dispose of slides

Sharps container

3
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Where do you dispose of swabs?

Sharps container

4
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Where do you dispose of tubes?

Discard cart

5
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Where do you dispose of plates?

Biohazard

6
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T/F: It is okay to wear open-toed shoes in lab.

False

7
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T/F: It is okay to tie up long hair when entering lab.

True

8
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Which BioSafety Level consists of indigenous or exotic microorganisms that can lead to disease of varying severity in healthy adults?

BSL 2

9
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Which BSL consists of microorganisms that are not known to cause disease in healthy adults?

BSL 1

10
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Which BSL consists of microorganisms that are dangerous and exotic with a high risk of aerosol transmitted infections? For these, there is rarely treatment/vaccines available, and infections are frequently fatal.

BSL 4

11
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What BSL level requires a negative air flow?

BSL 3 & 4

12
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What BSL level requires both negative air flow and a suit?

BSL 4

13
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What BSL level consists of indigenous or exotic microorganisms that cause serious or potentially lethal disease through respiratory transmission?

BSL 3

14
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What term means that microorganisms are everywhere?

Ubiquity

15
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What technique is used in order to prevent contamination from microorganisms?

Aseptic Technique

16
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What type of cleaning agent can destroy vegetative cells and viruses but does not destroy endospores?

Disinfectants

17
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Which disinfectant have you used throughout the semester in this lab?

Lysol

18
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After flaming your loop, how long should you wait before using the loop for it to cool down?

15-20 seconds

19
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T/F: When opening a broth tube, you only need to flame the mouth of the tube once in order to prevent contamination.

False, you need to flame after removing cap and before replacing cap.

20
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T/F: Label petri dish on agar side of plate.

True

21
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Which microscope uses contrast created by a bright specimen with a dark background to view a specimen?

Dark Field [dark background with contrast]

22
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Which microscope requires the use of stain and light is either passed through or reflected off of a specimen?

Bright-Field [use of stain]

23
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Which microscope have you used this semester?

Bright-Field

24
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Which microscope uses high intensity illumination to excite fluorescent molecules in the specimen?

Fluorescent

25
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Which microscope converts the difference in optical density of cells into different shades of brightness/contrast?

Phase Contrast [optical density]

26
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What are fluorophores?

Fluorescent particles in microbial cell

27
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Which microscope structure is composed of the arm and the base?

Framework

28
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Which microscope structure is a horizontal area that supports the microscope slide?

Stage

29
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Which microscope structure consists of the eyepieces that typically provide a magnification of 10x?

Oculars

30
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What structure on the microscope allows for the holding and moving of the slide around the stage?

Stage Clips

31
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Which microscope structure collects and directs the light from the light source to the slide and is located under the area that supports the slide?

Condenser

32
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What is the name of the microscope structures attached to a rotating nose-piece and have powers of 10x, 40x, and 100x?

Objectives

33
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What objective lens is used with the immersion oil?

100x

34
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How do you calculate total magnification?

ocular lens x objective lens

35
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What is the immersion oil used for?

To bridge the gap between lens and slide

36
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Which microscope structure controls the amount of light that reaches the slide?

Diaphragm

37
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Which microscope structure is used to bring objects on the slide into initial focus?

Coarse Focus Knob

38
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After moving to the 40x and 100x objective lenses, which microscope structure is used to bring your slide specimen into focus?

Fine Focus Knob

39
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What is the term used to describe the distance between the bottom of the objective lens and the slide?

Working Distance

40
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What term is used to describe the ability of a microscope to remain relatively in focus when changing from a lower power objective to a higher power objective?

Parfocal

41
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Resolving Power

The ability of a lens system to show two closely spaced objects as distinct and separate.

42
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numerical apperature

the mathematical expression that describes how the condenser lens concentrates and focuses the light rays away from the light source

43
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What is lens paper used for?

cleaning the microscope lenses and objectives

44
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What is the first step of performing any staining procedure?

Smear prep

45
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What does heat fixing do?

Melts the cell wall in order for your specimen to stick to the slide - adheres it to slide

46
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How do you heat fix a slide?

Pass ABOVE flame once or twice quickly

47
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Which staining procedure is commonly used to visualize morphology and cell arrangement?

Simple Stain

48
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What is methylene blue used for?

It is the stain used for simple stain procedures

49
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What is the primary stain of Gram staining?

crystal violet

50
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What is the secondary stain of Gram staining?

safranin

51
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What is used as the mordant in a Gram stain?

Iodine

52
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What is the decolorizer in Gram staining?

95% ethanol

53
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List the correct order of use of stains for Gram staining

1. Crystal violent

2. Gram's iodine

3. Decolorizer

4. Safranin

54
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What color does gram positive stain?

purple

55
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What color does gram negative stain?

pink

56
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Selective Media

favor the growth of one organism over another

57
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Differential Media

allows growth of several types of microbes and displays visible differences among those microbes

58
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What selective agent is in MSA that selects for sodium tolerant organisms?

Sodium Chloride

59
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Is an MSA plate selective or differential?

Selective (only grows sodium tolerant microbes)

60
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What is fermented by organisms such as Staphylococcus aureus on MSA to produce acid? Also what happens (color wise) to the plate?

Mannitol; it turns yellow

61
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What type of media is Sheep's Blood Agar (SBA)?

Differential media

62
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What type of hemolysis occurs when there is partial breakdown of RBCs producing a greenish discoloration around the colonies?

Alpha Hemolysis

63
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What type of hemolysis occurs when there is complete breakdown of RBCs producing clear zones around the colonies?

Beta Hemolysis

64
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What type of hemolysis occurs when there is no breakdown of RBCs and no effect of coloration?

Gamma Hemolysis

65
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Which test determines if an organism produces the enzyme that degrades hydrogen peroxide into water and oxygen?

Catalase test (enzyme is called catalase)

66
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If an organism can breakdown carbohydrates, what does this organism produce during the process?

Acid

67
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In Phenol Red (PR) Carbohydrate tubes, the red coloration you originally began with turns what color when acid is produced?

Yellow

68
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What do starch agar plates contain?

Starch

69
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In a starch agar plate, what does amylase from the microbe hydrolyze?

Starch

70
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What reagent is used for detecting the starch hydrolysis on a starch agar plate?

Iodine

71
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T/F: Iodine is added before incubation of a starch agar plate.

False, added after

72
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T/F: Bile esculin slants are both a selective and differential medium.

True

73
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What color does a bile esculin slant become if the organism was able to hydrolyze esculin into esculetin?

Black (more than half the slant to be positive)

74
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What color is a positive result for a bile esculin slant?

Black

75
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What ingredient do coagulase tubes contain that allow for the possibility of an organism to coagulate?

Rabbit Blood Plasma

76
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Which organism is a coagulase test often used to identify/confirm?

Staphylococcus aureus

77
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When performing a KOH test, what is released from the cell in order to produce strings?

DNA

78
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If an organism has a negative KOH test result (no strings present), what is the organism's Gram stain reaction?

Gram positive

79
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If an organism has a positive KOH test result (strings present), what is the organism's Gram stain reaction?

Gram negative

80
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What type of medium is an Eosin Methylene Blue (EMB) plate?

selective (because of the dye) and differential (degrees of lactose fermentation)

81
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What is fermented on an EMB plate in order to produce acid?

Lactose

82
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Which organism used in this course is characteristic of a green sheen production on an EMB plate?

E. coli

83
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T/F: EMB plates select for gram positive organisms.

False, Gram Negative

84
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O/F Glucose Test, What are we testing for?

Oxidation (respiration) and Fermentation

85
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O/F Glucose test: what reagent is added to the top of the F tube in order to create an anaerobic environment?

Sterile Mineral Oil

86
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What color does the O/F Glucose medium turn when a positive result is produced?

Yellow

87
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What reagents are used in a Voges-Proskauer (VP) test?

VP1 (alpha-naphthol) and VP2 (KOH)

88
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What color is a positive Citrate test?

Blue

89
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Nitrate test: If the tube turns red after the addition of Nitrate A and Nitrate B, what does this mean?

Positive result - Nitrate was reduced to Nitrite

90
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Nitrate test: If the tube did not turn red after Nitrate A and Nitrate B were added, but it does turn red are Zinc is added, what does this mean?

Negative result - Nitrate was not reduced

91
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Nitrate test: if the tube does not turn red after the addition of Nitrate A, Nitrate B, or Zinc, what does this mean?

Positive result - Ammonia or another non-gaseous product was produced

92
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What 3 tests does a SIM tube test for?

Hydrogen Sulfide, Indole, Motility

93
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What is the color of a positive Hydrogen Sulfide (H2S) test?

Black

94
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What is the reagent used to test for Indole production in a SIM tube?

Kovac's reagent

95
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What color does the tube turn if indole is detected in a SIM test?

Red

96
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Turbid

cloudy

97
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What is the major organelle that bacteria use for motility?

Flagella

98
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Chemotaxis

process of bacterial movement

99
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What color is a negative Urea test?

Yellow-ish Orange

100
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What color is a positive Urea test?

Pink