DH 206 Quiz #1 pharmacology , DH206 M2 Quiz #2, Pharm Ch 7, 8, 9, Dental Pharmacology M4 Quiz #4, DH206 M6 Quiz #5, DH206 M7 Quiz #6, M8 Quiz 7 Chapters 21-23, DH206 M9 Quiz #8 Chapters 24-26, PHARM Quiz 8, DH206 M9 Quiz #8 Chapters 24-26, PHARM : Qu…

Q1

Which type of drug name usually begins with a lowercase letter?

- Brand Name

- Code Name

- Trade Name

- Generic Name

Generic name

The federal body that determines whether a drug is considered a controlled substance and to which schedule it belongs is the

Food and Drug Administration (FDA).

Federal Trade Commission (FTC).

Drug Enforcement Administration (DEA).

U.S. Pharmacopeia (USP).

DEA

Which of the following is located in the body of the prescription?

The date of the prescription

The amount of the drug to be dispensed

Directions to the prescriber

Refill instructions

The amount of the drug to be dispensed

In comparing two drugs, the dose-response curve for the drug that is more efficacious would

be closer to the y-axis.

be farther from the y-axis.

have a greater curve height.

have a higher median effective dose (ED50).

have a higher median effective dose (ED50)

When different drugs compete for the same receptor sites, the drug with the stronger affinity for the receptor will bind to

more receptors than the drug with the weaker affinity.

fewer receptors than the drug with the weaker affinity.

all of the available receptors.

none of the available receptors.

more receptors than the drug with the weaker affinity

T/F: When the acidity of the tissue increases, as in instances of infection, the effect of a local anesthetic decreases; therefore, the local anesthetic is a weak acid.

True, False

The distribution of a drug is determined by

blood flow to the organ.

presence of certain barriers.

plasma protein-binding capacity.

solubility of the drug.

All of the above

All of the above

The _____ is the most common site for biotransformation.

kidney

blood plasma

liver

small intestine

liver

If a drug displays zero-order elimination kinetics

elimination increases as the dose of the drug is increased.

a constant amount is eliminated per unit time.

the drug is not eliminated and is retained in the body.

the elimination of the drug cannot be predicted mathematically.

a constant amount is eliminated per unit of time

Which organ is involved in the first-pass effect after oral administration of a drug?

Kidney

Lungs

Liver

Spleen

Liver

Which of the following routes of drug administration produces the most rapid drug response?

Intravenous

Intramuscular

Subcutaneous

Intradermal

Intravenous

A drug effect that is neither predictable nor dose related is called a

therapeutic effect.

toxic reaction.

side effect.

drug allergy.

drug allergy

A dose-related reaction that produces undesirable effects caused by the action on nontarget organs is called a

therapeutic effect.

toxic reaction.

side effect.

drug allergy.

side effect

The greatest risk to the fetus from exposure to drugs occurs

just before birth.

during the third trimester.

during the second trimester.

before pregnancy status is known.

before pregnancy status is known

An acute, life-threatening allergic reaction characterized by hypotension, bronchospasm, laryngeal edema, and cardiac arrhythmias is what type of hypersensitivity?

Type I

Type II

Type III

Type IV

Type I

Phase 1 clinical trials involve all of the following except which one?

Safe dose range

Toxic effects of the drug

Metabolism

Effectiveness

Effectiveness

The word stat on a prescription means

before meals.

at bedtime.

immediately.

every.

Immediately

The abbreviation used on prescriptions for four times a day is

bid.

qid.

qd.

ud.

qid

The movement of a drug from one site in the body to other sites is called

distribution.

disruption.

dispersion.

active transport.

distribution

Advantages of oral administration of a drug include all the following except

large surface area for drug absorption.

many different dose forms that may be administered orally.

more predictable response than intravenous administration.

the simplest way to introduce a drug into the body.

more predictable response than intravenous administration

The need for an increasingly larger dose of a drug to obtain the same effects as the original dose is

drug dependency.

insufficiency.

drug tolerance.

craving.

Drug tolerance

Tolerance is most closely associated with which category of drug?

Antibiotics

Angiotensin receptor blockers

Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs

Opioids

Anti-hypertensive drugs

opioids

A dose of a drug that kills 50% of experimental animals is termed

ED50.

minimally effective dose.

LD50.

therapeutic index.

LD50

T/F: The greater the therapeutic index is, the greater the toxicity will be.

False

Nutritional or herbal supplements

carry the U.S. Food and Drug Administration (FDA) approval for disease states.

are not drugs.

can cause adverse effects.

will not interact with other drugs the patient may be taking.

can cause adverse effects

Agents such as albuterol (Proventil, Ventolin) cause bronchodilation by binding to _____ receptors.

A.alpha

B.beta1

C.beta2

D.nicotinic

C.beta2

Q2

Neostigmine is an indirect-acting cholinergic agent that is classified as (1) indirect acting and (2) irreversible.

A.Both claims are true.

B.Claim 1 is true; claim 2 is false.

C.Claim 1 is false; claim 2 is true.

D.Neither claim 1 nor claim 2 is true.

B.Claim 1 is true; claim 2 is false.

Which of the following choices represents potential cardiac effects of anticholinergic agents?

A.Bradycardia exclusively

B.Tachycardia exclusively

C.Variable; bradycardia predominates with small doses and tachycardia with large doses

D.No cardiac effect from the use of these agents

C.Variable; bradycardia predominates with small doses and tachycardia with large doses

T/F: Salivation, lacrimation, urination, and defecation refer to toxic effects seen with adrenergic agents.

False

On administration of an agent, heart rate increases because of a direct effect on the heart. However, total peripheral resistance decreases dramatically. As a consequence, systolic blood pressure increases only slightly, and mean arterial pressure typically falls. This agent is

A.epinephrine.

B.norepinephrine.

C.phenylephrine.

D.isoproterenol.

D.isoproterenol.

Tertiary anticholinergic agents are _____ soluble and _____ penetrate the brain.

A.lipid soluble; easily

B.lipid soluble; do not

C.not lipid soluble; easily

D.not lipid soluble; do not

A.lipid soluble; easily

The following statements are true of d-tubocurarine except which one?

A.It is a competitive nondepolarizing blocker.

B.It binds to nicotinic receptors.

C.It precipitates malignant hyperthermia in susceptible patients when combined with halothane.

D.It has been used in the Amazon for hunting animals.

Its action can be overcome by administering neostigmine.

C.It precipitates malignant hyperthermia in susceptible patients when combined with halothane.

Which drug would be best to treat xerostomia?

A.Atropine

B.Propranolol

C.Pilocarpine

D.Pseudoephedrine

C.Pilocarpine

Which of the following agents is an indirect-acting sympathetic agonist?

A.Albuterol

B.Pseudoephedrine

C.Amphetamine

D.Physostigmine

E.Epinephrine

C.Amphetamine

Prostacyclin _____ aggregation of platelets and thromboxane A2 ____ aggregation of platelets.

A.stimulates; stimulates

B.stimulates; inhibits

C.inhibits; stimulates

D.inhibits; inhibits

C.inhibits; stimulates

Which drug carries a safety warning regarding the risk of three rare, but potentially fatal, skin reactions associated with?

A.Aspirin and salicylates

B.NSAIDs

C.Acetaminophen

D.Colchicine.

C.Acetaminophen

T/F: Probenecid and allopurinol both inhibit the synthesis of uric acid.

False

Salicylism is a toxic effect from

A.aspirin (ASA).

B.acetaminophen (Tylenol).

C.ibuprofen (Advil).

D.azathioprine (Imuran).

A.aspirin (ASA).

T/F: Raising the pain threshold increases one's reaction to pain.

False

Acetaminophen does not possess any of these clinically significant _____ effects: (1) antipyretic, (2) antiinflammatory, (3) analgesic.

A.1, 2, 3

B.1 and 2

C.1 and 3

D.1

E.2

E.2

Which of the following raises the pain threshold?

A.Emotional instability

B.Sympathy

C.Sleep

D.Both A and C

E.Both B and C

E.Both B and C

Adverse cardiovascular effects are thought to be least likely to occur with the use of which of the following nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)?

A.Celecoxib (Celebrex)

B.Naproxen (Naprosyn)

C.Diclofenac (Voltaren)

D.Ketoprofen (Orudis)

B.Naproxen (Naprosyn)

Oral bioavailability of opioids is primarily limited by

A.incomplete absorption.

B.first-pass metabolism.

C.side effects of nausea and vomiting.

D.enterohepatic circulation.

E.rapid renal excretion.

B.first-pass metabolism.

T/F: Combining an opioid with a nonopioid analgesic produces an additive analgesic effect with fewer adverse reactions.

True

Each of the following contains naltrexone except one. Which is the exception?

A.Embeda

B.Targiniq ER

C.Xtampza

D.Troxyca

C.Xtampza

Codeine may cause nausea and vomiting by activating the chemoreceptor trigger zone in the

A.thalamus.

B.hypothalamus.

C.medulla.

D.frontal lobe.

C.medulla.

Enkephalins, endorphins, and dynorphins probably function as _____, although their exact function has not been elucidated.

A.prostaglandins

B.neurotransmitters

C.sedative-hypnotics

D.enzymes

B.neurotransmitters

What do aspirin, acetaminophen, ibuprofen, and codeine have in common?

A.They are all antiinflammatory.

B.They are all analgesic.

C.They all inhibit platelet aggregation.

D.They are all antipyretic.

B.They are all analgesic.

Which is true regarding naloxone access laws?

A.Federal law restricts the use of naloxone to emergency medical services (EMS) teams.

B.The law requires criminal prosecution for persons who need to use of naloxone.

C.A number of jurisdictions have passed laws making naloxone available to first responders, family members, and close friends of persons taking or abusing opioids.

D.Naloxone will potentiate effects of a narcotic and should be used strictly to prevent withdrawal.

C.A number of jurisdictions have passed laws making naloxone available to first responders, family members, and close friends of persons taking or abusing opioids.

Which opioid agonist provides a strength of analgesic action between codeine and morphine?

A.Acetaminophen

B.Aspirin

C.Oxycodone (in Percodan, Percocet)

D.Dihydrocodone (in Synalgos-DC)

C.Oxycodone (in Percodan, Percocet)

Which of the following categories of autonomic nervous system (ANS) agents can cause an acute rise in intraocular blood pressure in patients with narrow-angle glaucoma?

A.Cholinergic

B.Anticholinergic

C.Adrenergic

D.Antiadrenergic

B.Anticholinergic

Muscarinic receptors are found in which of the following? (Select all that apply.)

A.Central nervous system

B.Sympathetic nervous system

C.Parasympathetic nervous system

D.Neuromuscular junction

E.Adrenal medulla

A.Central nervous system

B.Sympathetic nervous system

C.Parasympathetic nervous system

T/F: Tertiary (ammonium) agents cross the blood-brain barrier better than quaternary (ammonium) agents.

True

Which of the following agents is being used to produce methamphetamine?

A.Phenylephrine

B.Pseudoephedrine

C.Dopamine

D.Dipivefrin

B.Pseudoephedrine

An _______ nerve fiber is a sensory fiber, and an _________ nerve fiber is a motor fiber in the autonomic nervous system.

A.afferent; efferent

B.efferent; afferent

C.afferent; neuromuscular junction

D.efferent; neuromuscular junction

A.afferent; efferent

The action of norepinephrine is terminated by which of the following choices?

A.Uptake into the presynaptic nerve terminal by an amine-specific pump

B.Action of catechol-O-methyltransferase (COMT)

C.Action of monoamine oxidase (MAO)

D.All of the above

E.None of the above

D.All of the above

Caffeine is often combined with aspirin because caffeine potentiates the analgesic effect of aspirin and other analgesics.

A.Both parts of the statement are true.

B.Both parts of the statement are false.

C.The first part of the statement is true; the second part is false.

D.The first part of the statement is false; the second part is true.

A.Both parts of the statement are true.

Oral administration with _____ is indicated only as continuation to intravenous (IV) or intramuscular (IM) therapy.

A.fenoprofen

B.ketorolac

C.naproxen sodium

D.diflunisal

B.ketorolac

The action of nonopioid analgesics is related to their ability to inhibit

A.the CNS.

B.prostaglandin synthesis.

C.release of epinephrine.

D.release of acetylcholine.

B.prostaglandin synthesis.

Which of the following statements is true of COX II?

A.It is a widely distributed constitutive enzyme.

B.It is responsible for the adverse reactions of the NSAIDs.

C.It is synthesized only when inflammation occurs.

D.It is not an enzyme.

C.It is synthesized only when inflammation occurs.

A person should _____ aspirin if he or she suspects he or she may be having a heart attack provided there is not an aspirin allergy, hypersensitivity, or another contraindication.

A.completely avoid

B.chew one low dose

C.take the maximum daily recommended dose of 4,000 mg of

D.take 325 to 650 mg every 4 hours of

B.chew one low dose

A drug interaction between aspirin and _____ can result in significant bleeding.

A.probenecid

B.warfarin

C.methotrexate

D.sulfonylureas

B.warfarin

T/F: Two components of pain include perception and reaction.

True

Which of the following statements is true concerning adverse reactions of NSAIDs?

A.NSAIDs will decrease acid secretion in the stomach.

B.Tolerance develops to the use of NSAIDs.

C.NSAIDs irreversibly inhibit platelet aggregation because they inhibit thromboxane A2 production.

D.NSAIDs have precipitated renal insufficiency.

D.NSAIDs have precipitated renal insufficiency.

Which opioid is commonly used as an antitussive?

A.Propoxyphene

B.Codeine

C.Diphenoxylate

D.Pentazocine

B.Codeine

Morphine has its most potent action on the _____ class of opioid receptors, and pentazocine has its most potent action on the _____ class of opioid receptors.

A.mu; kappa

B.mu; delta

C.sigma; delta

D.kappa; mu

E.delta; kappa

A.mu; kappa

A patient presents with itching and urticaria after codeine administration. This response most likely represents a

A.pharmacologic action of codeine.

B.hypersensitivity reaction to codeine.

C.placebo effect from receiving codeine.

D.reaction unrelated to codeine administration.

A.pharmacologic action of codeine.

Which of the following agents is a potent, short-acting, parenterally administered opioid that is commonly used during general anesthesia?

A.Dynorphin

B.Hydromorphone

C.Nalmefene

D.Fentanyl

E.Tramadol

D.Fentanyl

Tylenol #3 contains _____ mg of codeine.

A,7.5

B.15

C.30

D.60

C.30

Beta-endorphin is a naturally occurring peptide with opioid-like action. It possesses analgesic action but has no addiction potential.

A.Both statements are true.

B.Both statements are false.

C.The first statement is true; the second statement is false.

D.The first statement is false; the second statement is true.

C.The first statement is true; the second statement is false.

Q3

Dental caries is caused by an infection with

a. Porphyromonas gingivalis.

b. Eikenella corrodens.

c. Streptococcus mutans.

d. Fusobacterium.

Streptococcus mutans.

Which of the following choices is the dental hygienist's biggest dental problem in the adult patient?

a. Caries

b. Periodontal disease

c. Localized dental infection

d. Systemic dental infection

Periodontal disease

If an infection is just beginning, the organisms most likely to be present are

a. gram-positive cocci.

b. gram-negative cocci.

c. gram-positive anaerobes.

d. gram-negative anaerobes.

gram-positive cocci.

Which of the following agents is the drug of choice for an early dental infection unless the patient is allergic to it?

a. Erythromycin

b. Clindamycin

c. Penicillin

d. Metronidazole

Penicillin

Which of the following antibiotics is associated with pseudomembranous colitis?

a. Penicillin

b. Erythromycin

c. Clindamycin

d. Metronidazole

Clindamycin

An _____ agent is a substance that destroys or suppresses the growth or multiplication of bacteria.

a. antiinfective

b. antibacterial

c. antibiotic

d. antimicrobial

antibacterial

Which of the following antiinfective agents is bacteriostatic, but may be bactericidal at higher dose levels?

a. Cephalosporins

b. Metronidazole

c. Penicillins

d. Erythromycin

e. Vancomycin

Erythromycin

The disease-producing power of the microorganism is called a. resistance.

b. superinfection.

c. infection.

d. virulence.

virulence.

Superinfection is more often caused by _____-spectrum antibiotics and increases when taken for a _____ time period.

a. narrow; shorter

b. narrow; longer

c. broad; shorter

d. broad; longer

broad; longer

The possibility of superinfection can be minimized by use of the _____ specific antiinfective agent, the _____ effective course of therapy, and adequate doses.

a. least; shortest

b. least; longest

c. most; shortest

d. most; longest

most; shortest

Which of the following statements is true concerning infection and host resistance? a. Host resistance should be considered as having both local and systemic components.

b. If a patient has diabetes mellitus it can reduce the resistance to an infection.

c. Drugs such as steroids are capable of enhancing a patient's immune response.

d. Both A and B

e. Both B and C

Both A and B

The misuse of antibiotics has contributed to antibiotic resistance. The solution to reducing the incidence of antibiotic-resistant bacteria is to write more prescriptions for antibiotics.

a. Both statements are true.

b. Both statements are false.

c. The first statement is true, the second is false.

d. The first statement is false, the second is true

The first statement is true, the second is false.

Which of the following statements is true concerning antibiotic resistance?

a. Natural resistance occurs when an organism that was previously sensitive to an antimicrobial agent develops resistance.

b. An increase in the use of an antibiotic in a given population decreases the proportion of resistant organisms in that population.

c. Bacterial resistance can occur by the transfer of deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) genetic material from one organism to another.

d. The transfer of genetic material from one organism to another may only occur among organism of the same species.

Bacterial resistance can occur by the transfer of deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) genetic material from one organism to another.

Which of the following periodontal diseases is usually not treated with antimicrobials?

a. Periodontal abscess

b. Localized juvenile periodontitis

c. Adult periodontitis

d. Rapidly advancing periodontitis

Adult periodontitis

Superinfection describes a(n) a. nonsystemic, superficial infection.

b. exaggerated infection caused by treating a resistant pathogen.

c. opportunistic infection that arises as a consequence of treatment.

d. infection by multiple pathogens.

opportunistic infection that arises as a consequence of treatment.

Antiinfective agents can potentiate the effect of oral anticoagulants by interfering with the production of vitamin

a. A.

b. D.

c. E.

d. K.

K

_____ has the highest incidence of gastrointestinal complaints of any of the antibiotics.

a. Penicillin

b. Erythromycin

c. Clindamycin

d. Cephalosporin

Erythromycin

Which of the following antibiotics are not associated with any teratogenicity and are often used in pregnant women?

a. Penicillin

b. Tetracyclines

c. Erythromycin

d. Metronidazole

e. Both A and C

Both A and C

Which of the following statements is true concerning the pharmacokinetics of penicillin?

a. Penicillin may be administered orally, parenterally, or topically.

b. Penicillin G is better absorbed orally than penicillin V; thus, penicillin G is used for administration of oral penicillin.

c. Penicillin V and amoxicillin can be taken without regard to meals.

d. Penicillin does not cross the placenta and will not appear in breast milk.

Penicillin V and amoxicillin can be taken without regard to meals.

Penicillinase inactivates the penicillin moiety by

a. sublimation.

b. desiccation.

c. cleaving the β-lactam ring.

d. cleaving the S-containing thiazolidine ring.

cleaving the β-lactam ring.

Which of the following agents allows the use of amoxicillin to treat penicillinase-producing organisms?

a. Clavulanic acid

b. Divalent cations

c. Corticosteroids

d. Disulfiram

Clavulanic acid

Some studies indicate that _____% of patients receiving penicillin will have an anaphylactic reaction.

a. 0.05 to 0.10

b. 0.5 to 1

c. 5 to 10

d. 20 to 25

0.05 to 0.10

Which of the following statements is true regarding penicillin allergy?

a. Allergic reactions with oral penicillin are more common than with parenteral penicillin.

b. Anaphylactic reactions are more frequent in patients pretreated with β-blockers and subsequently given oral penicillin.

c. The treatment of anaphylaxis caused by penicillin is the immediate administration of corticosteroids.

d. Estimates indicate that 10,000 to 30,000 deaths occur annually in the United States because of an allergic reaction to penicillin.

Anaphylactic reactions are more frequent in patients pretreated with β-blockers and subsequently given oral penicillin.

Which of the following salts of penicillin G produces the most rapid and highest blood level?

a. Potassium salt given intravenously

b. Potassium salt given intramuscularly

c. Benzathine salt given intramuscularly

d. Procaine salt intramuscularly

Potassium salt given intravenously

The usual adult dose of penicillin V for treatment of an infection is

a. 250 mg twice a day (bid).

b. 250 mg four times a day (qid).

c. 250 to 500 mg twice a day (bid).

d. 250 to 500 mg four times a day (qid).

250 to 500 mg four times a day (qid).

Which of the following statements is true regarding penicillinase-resistant penicillins?

a. Penicillinase-resistant penicillins should be reserved for use against only penicillinase-producing staphylococci.

b. Penicillinase-resistant penicillins are more effective against penicillin G-sensitive organisms when compared with penicillin G.

c. Penicillinase-resistant penicillins produce fewer side effects when compared with penicillin G.

d. Patients allergic to penicillin are not also allergic to the penicillinase-resistant penicillins.

Penicillinase-resistant penicillins should be reserved for use against only penicillinase-producing staphylococci.

Which drug should be used before oral prophylaxis prior to dental treatment for a patient who has rheumatic heart disease with no known drug allergies?

a. Amoxicillin

b. Tetracycline

c. Clindamycin

d. Erythromycin

e. None of the above

None of the above