Ephe 155 lec 13 & 14

List four general health benefits of being physically fit.

Restful sleep, improved body composition, stronger circulation/lung function, and enhanced resistance to infectious diseases.

How does regular weight training benefit the body?

It builds lean body mass, develops muscle strength and endurance, manages chronic disease, reduces back injury risk, and maintains bone density.

What are the physiological effects of cardiovascular fitness on the heart and lungs?

Increased heart strength, higher stroke volume, slowed resting pulse, increased breathing efficiency, and reduced blood pressure.

What are some unique physical challenges faced by occupational athletes?

Irregular schedules, lack of warm-up time, heavy equipment/PPE, and unpredictable environmental conditions.

What is the primary difference between liver glycogen and muscle glycogen?

Muscle glycogen is retained for the muscle's own use, while liver glycogen shares glucose with other body tissues.

Which fuel source provides the majority of energy during the first 10 minutes of activity?

Muscle glycogen.

How does aerobic activity affect glycogen usage compared to anaerobic activity?

Aerobic activity uses glycogen slowly by incorporating energy from glucose and fatty acids, which helps conserve glycogen stores.

What are four strategies to maintain blood glucose for endurance performance?

Eat a high-carbohydrate diet regularly, take glucose during activity, eat carbohydrate-rich foods after performance, and train muscles to maximize glycogen stores.

What is the purpose of 'carbohydrate loading' for athletes?

It tricks muscles into storing more glycogen before a competition, potentially doubling glycogen concentration for activities lasting 90+ minutes.

How should an athlete prepare for carbohydrate loading in the week before an event?

They should taper training and consume a high-carbohydrate diet during the three days prior to the event.

Why is post-exercise carbohydrate consumption important?

It enlarges glycogen stores by up to 300% if a high-carbohydrate meal is consumed within two hours of activity.

Give three examples of high glycemic index foods suitable for post-exercise replenishment.

Cornflakes, mashed potatoes, and watermelon.

What is the current scientific consensus on increasing fat intake to burn more fat during activity?

Performance benefits are inconsistent, and high fat intake may increase heart disease risk.

Why is it important to avoid over-restriction of fat in an athlete's diet?

While high fat intake has risks, extreme restriction is not considered ideal for overall health or performance.

What are the primary components of a diet that supports physical performance?

Adequate carbohydrates for glycogen, sufficient protein for repair, and appropriate vitamins and minerals.

What are the potential hazards of inadequate fluid intake during physical activity?

Dehydration, which can lead to decreased performance, heat exhaustion, and heat stroke.

How does physical fitness impact mental health?

It lowers the incidence and severity of anxiety and depression while strengthening self-image.

What are two examples of occupational groups that function as 'occupational athletes'?

Firefighters and military personnel (e.g., CF diving personnel).

What is the role of glucose in supporting physical performance?

It serves as a primary energy source for muscles, especially during high-intensity work.

What is the role of fatty acids in physical performance?

They provide energy during moderate-intensity, aerobic activity, helping to conserve limited glycogen stores.

How does physical fitness affect long-term health in later years?

It contributes to a longer life and a higher quality of life.

Why is it important to debate the use of dietary ergogenic aids?

To evaluate their efficacy, safety, and ethical implications in improving sports performance.

What is the recommended daily energy intake from fat for athletes?

20% to 30% of daily energy.

What three factors influence fat utilization during physical activity?

Amount of carbohydrate available, intensity and duration of the activity, and degree of training.

What two factors drive muscle protein synthesis?

Intensity and pattern of muscle contraction.

Do nutrient supplements enhance the performance of well-nourished athletes?

No, they do not enhance performance.

How do vitamin and mineral deficiencies affect athletic performance?

They impede performance.

Why is vitamin E sometimes taken by athletes?

To prevent oxidative damage to muscles and protect against exercise-induced oxidative stress.

What is the health concern regarding high doses of supplemental vitamin E?

Health Canada cautions against doses of 400 IUs or more for those at risk for chronic diseases.

Which group is particularly prone to iron deficiency?

Active young women.

What nutrient can be consumed to enhance the absorption of iron from plant-based foods?

Vitamin C.

What are the primary causes of water loss during physical activity?

Breathing and sweating.

What is the maximum rate at which the body can absorb fluid per hour?

1 litre per hour.

What does the sensation of thirst indicate?

That dehydration has already set in.

What is the primary risk of sodium depletion during long-duration exercise?

Hyponatremia.

Why are salt tablets generally discouraged for athletes?

They can worsen dehydration, impair performance, increase potassium losses, and irritate the stomach.

What are the symptoms of heat stroke?

Clumsiness, confusion, loss of consciousness, dizziness, headache, nausea, internal temperature above 40°C, and sudden cessation of sweating.

What is the recommended macronutrient distribution for a performance diet?

60%-70% carbohydrates, 20%-30% fat, and 10%-20% protein.

What are the potential benefits of creatine supplementation?

Enhanced high-intensity strength, increased power output, increased muscle mass, improved recovery, and improved cognitive function.

What does research suggest about chromium picolinate supplements?

It shows no effect on body fat, lean mass, strength, or fatigue, and may be dangerous due to the formation of hydroxyl radicals.

What are the risks associated with DHEA supplements?

Increased risk of hormone-sensitive cancers and potential worsening of psychiatric disorders.

What is 'The Clear' (THG)?

A harmful synthetic steroid that binds to androgen receptors to produce muscle growth, which is toxic to the reproductive system and causes immunosuppression.

What is the primary benefit of Omega-3 fatty acid supplements for athletes?

Improved endurance, enhanced exercise recovery, and reduced muscle soreness.

Why is whey protein often considered unnecessary compared to whole foods?

It provides no added benefits over ordinary milk or yogurt.

What are the five key takeaways for athletic performance?

Fuel with carbs, build with protein, sustain with fats, hydrate smartly, and research any supplement.

What is the prerequisite for determining if eating is disordered?

One must first establish a definition for 'normal' eating.

How are attitudes toward food and body image conceptualized?

They exist on a continuum ranging from body acceptance to disordered eating.

What is the primary difference between an eating disorder and disordered eating?

An eating disorder is a psychiatric condition involving extreme body dissatisfaction and long-term harmful patterns, while disordered eating refers to a variety of atypical behaviors used to reduce weight.

What are some historical examples of disordered eating patterns?

Early Christians practiced semistarvation, Greeks and Romans engaged in bingeing and purging, and Muslims practiced fasting for Ramadan.

When was Anorexia Nervosa first reported?

In the 1870s.

What are the six major categories of factors that contribute to the development of an eating disorder?

Family environment, unrealistic media images, sociocultural values, personality traits, genetic/biological factors, and post-traumatic stress disorder.

What family characteristics are often associated with a higher frequency of eating disorders?

A history of OCD, anxiety disorders, and depression.

How does Western culture influence body image?

It values slenderness as a sign of beauty, self-discipline, health, and wealth.

What is the relationship between genetics and eating disorders?

The probability of having an eating disorder is several times higher if a biological relative also has one, suggesting a genetic component.

Which neurotransmitter has been linked to eating disorders in recent studies?

Serotonin.

How does serotonin-increasing medication affect patients with bulimia?

It can lead to spontaneous improvements in eating habits.

What is the clinical definition of Anorexia Nervosa?

A medical disorder where unhealthful behaviors are used to maintain a body weight less than 85% of the expected weight.

What is the peak onset age for Anorexia Nervosa?

15 to 19 years old.

What is amenorrhea in the context of Anorexia Nervosa?

The absence of menstrual periods for at least three months.

What are four major health risks associated with Anorexia Nervosa?

Electrolyte imbalance, cardiovascular problems, gastrointestinal problems, and bone problems.

List three common behavioral warning signs of Anorexia Nervosa.

Developing lists of 'acceptable' foods, cutting food into tiny bits, and rearranging food on the plate.

What is the definition of Bulimia Nervosa?

An eating disorder characterized by binge eating followed by purging.

How is 'binge eating' defined in the context of eating disorders?

Eating a large amount of food in a short period of time.

What are common methods of 'purging'?

Vomiting, use of laxatives, fasting, and excessive exercise.

True or False: There is a simple, single cause for eating disorders.

False.

What is the approximate mortality rate for females with Anorexia?

5% to 20% will die from complications.

Why is it difficult to determine if personality traits cause or are an effect of an eating disorder?

Because the traits may manifest as a result of the disorder's progression rather than being the underlying cause.

What is the typical demographic profile of a patient with Bulimia Nervosa?

An unmarried Caucasian female in her 20s or 30s with a normal or near-normal body weight.

What is the clinical diagnostic frequency requirement for binge eating in Bulimia Nervosa?

At least twice a week for a period of three months.

What are the primary health risks associated with the electrolyte imbalance caused by Bulimia Nervosa?

Dehydration and the loss of sodium and potassium ions.

What does the acronym EDNOS stand for in the context of eating disorders?

Eating disorder not otherwise specified.

What are the key behavioral symptoms of Binge Eating Disorder?

A sense of lack of control during binging, chaotic eating behaviors such as eating too fast or in private, and often eating in response to emotions rather than hunger.

Why is Binge Eating Disorder often linked to childhood experiences?

It is often a learned response to stress or conflict where parents use food as a substitute for affection, celebration, consolation, reward, or punishment.

How does vegetarianism correlate with eating disorders in teenagers?

Teenagers who classify themselves as vegetarians are twice as likely to diet, four times as likely to report intentional vomiting, and eight times as likely to report laxative use.

What is Baryophobia?

A condition where parents underfeed their child due to an irrational fear that the child will become obese.

What is Orthorexia?

An excessive preoccupation with eating healthy food that leads to unhealthy physical or psychological consequences.

What is Anorexia athletica?

A condition characterized by limiting caloric intake despite a high energy output.

What are the primary symptoms of Chronic Dieting?

Preoccupation with food and weight, strict dieting, excessive exercise, mood swings, loss of concentration, and increased criticism of body shape.

What is the primary health risk of chronic dieting regarding basal metabolic rate?

Decreased energy expenditure due to a reduced basal metabolic rate.

What defines Night-eating syndrome?

Consuming 25% of daily calories after the evening meal and experiencing nocturnal awakening and eating at least twice per week.

What does RED-S stand for and who does it affect?

Relative Energy Deficiency in Sport; it recognizes that any athlete, regardless of gender, can experience this syndrome.

List three physical symptoms of RED-S.

Fatigue, rapid weight loss, and frequent illness (or hair loss, trouble focusing, trouble staying warm).

How does RED-S impact athletic performance?

It leads to decreased muscle strength, decreased endurance, increased risk of injury, and impaired judgment or concentration.

Which types of sports are at higher risk for RED-S?

Sports that tie success to a thin body (gymnastics, figure skating, diving), sports with weight-ins (rowing, wrestling), and endurance sports (marathon, cycling).

What is the 'Female Athlete Triad'?

A subset of RED-S consisting of three components: disordered eating, menstrual dysfunction, and osteoporosis.

What is the male-to-female ratio for Bulimia Nervosa?

Between 1:6 and 1:10.

What are the common dental and facial health risks of Bulimia Nervosa?

Dental problems and swelling of the cheeks or jaw area.

What psychological disorders are often associated with Binge Eating Disorder?

Depression, substance abuse, and anxiety disorders.

What are the three main pillars of preventing eating disorders?

Reducing weight-related criticism, identifying unrealistic body images in the media, and modeling a healthy diet by parents.

What is a 'winning at all costs' mentality in sports culture often linked to?

A culture of body shaming regarding an athlete's weight or body shape.