Introduction to Imaging—Part 3: Scintigraphy, Ultrasonography, DEXA, and Clinical Decision Making

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Practice flashcards covering Scintigraphy, Ultrasonography, DEXA, imaging interpretation models (ABCs), AI in imaging, and referral communication models (SBAR, AGOLDMED).

Last updated 1:39 PM on 6/22/26
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50 Terms

1
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What does Scintigraphy primarily indicate regarding bone health?

It serves as an indicator of increased bone metabolic activity.

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How are radiopharmaceuticals administered during a Scintigraphy procedure?

They are injected intravenously (IVIV).

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Where do radiopharmaceuticals concentrate in the body during Scintigraphy?

In areas of hyperfunction within the skeletal system.

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What is a major disadvantage of Scintigraphy regarding the diagnosis of specific conditions?

It has poor specificity, as many conditions demonstrate similar increased uptake.

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In what clinical scenario is Scintigraphy considered most valuable?

Detecting the presence and distribution of lesions.

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List the three primary factors related to increased uptake of radiopharmaceuticals.

Increased blood flow, interrupted sympathetic nerve supply, and increased mineralization or osteoid formation.

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Why do Scintigraphy results differ between adults and children?

Children have active epiphyseal plates that show naturally increased uptake.

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What types of changes can Scintigraphy effectively demonstrate?

Osteoclastic and osteoblastic changes.

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If metabolic activity has subsided, how might a Scintigraphy test appear?

It may be negative.

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What specific application does Scintigraphy have for prosthetic joints?

Assessment for signs of infection or loosening.

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According to Khanna & Gelfand (2024), Scintigraphy is used for the differential diagnosis of which two conditions?

Osteomyelitis vs. cellulitis.

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Why does interpretation of Scintigraphy require caution with older patients?

Uptake becomes less uniform due to increased age and osteoporosis.

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What process causes increased uptake at osseotendinous junctions?

Areas of constant stress and tissue remodeling.

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What is the primary mechanism of Ultrasonography?

Sound waves are introduced through a transducer and are absorbed or reflected at tissue interfaces.

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In Ultrasonography, what does the term 'hypoechoic' signify?

A decrease in echoes within the tissue.

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In Ultrasonography, what does the term 'hyperechoic' signify?

An increase in echoes within the tissue.

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Which anatomical structures show a tendency for greater echogenicity in ultrasound?

Fascial planes.

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What does a hypoechoic area within a tissue generally suggest?

A change of structural integrity.

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What pattern is typically seen in a longitudinal axis ultrasound of musculotendinous structures?

A fibrilinear pattern.

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What is the sensitivity of Ultrasonography for diagnosing rotator cuff tears according to Ardic et al. (2006)?

98.1%98.1\% sensitive.

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How does Ultrasonography compare to MRI for detecting partial-thickness rotator cuff tears?

It is superior to MRI.

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Why is Ultrasonography the 'go-to' screening method for Developmental Dysplasia of the Hip (DDHDDH) in infants?

There is no risk of ionizing radiation.

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What is the primary disadvantage of Ultrasonography according to Whittaker et al. (2019)?

It is very operator dependent.

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What does the acronym DEXA (or DXA) stand for?

Dual Energy X-Ray Absorptiometry.

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How is bone density calculated in a DEXA scan?

It is based on the attenuation of x-rays and the amount of radiation absorbed.

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What is the radiation dose of a DEXA scan compared to a normal chest x-ray?

Approximately 110\frac{1}{10} of a normal chest x-ray.

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What is the weight limit for many DEXA models due to high BMIs?

400400 pounds.

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What is the 'Z score' in a DEXA report?

A comparison of the subject's bone density to age-matched individuals.

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What is the 'T score' in a DEXA report?

A comparison of the subject's bone density to young healthy individuals.

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According to the WHO, what T-score defines osteoporosis?

A T-score of less than 2.5-2.5.

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According to the WHO, what T-score range defines osteopenia or low bone mass?

A T-score of 1.0-1.0 to 2.5-2.5.

32
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Which imaging utility has high cost and high radiation according to Brunader & Shelton (2002)?

Quantitative Computed Tomography (QCTQCT).

33
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What are the 'ABCs' used for reading Radiography and CT images?

A = Alignment/Appearance, B = Bone Density, C = Cortex/Consistency or Cartilage Space, S = Soft Tissues.

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Under the 'A' in ABCs, what specific characteristics of bones are evaluated?

Number, size, shape, contour, and position.

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What consistency and space factors are reviewed under the 'C' in ABCs?

Joint space width and symmetry, subchondral bone contour, and epiphyseal plates.

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When using ABCs for MRI, what extra factors are examined for soft tissues?

Signal intensity and tissue continuity.

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How does Artificial Intelligence (AI) recognize pathology in digital images?

Algorithms recognize patterns of pixels that represent pathological vs. normal arrangements.

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In which area is AI currently less accurate according to Ruitenbeek et al. (2024)?

Musculoskeletal disease detection, especially with MRI.

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What should remain with the clinician regardless of AI accuracy?

Patient-centered decision-making.

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What determines if imaging is indicated in terms of 'yield'?

High diagnostic yield and potential for change in management.

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What factors suggest imaging is NOT indicated?

Low risk of pathology, low diagnostic yield, and potential radiation exposure.

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What information should an imaging referral include according to ACR Practice Parameters?

Relevant clinical information, a working diagnosis, and/or pertinent clinical signs and symptoms.

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What does each letter stand for in the SBAR model of communication?

S = Situation, B = Background, A = Assessment, R = Recommendation/Request.

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In the SBAR model, what is included in the 'Assessment'?

Your hypothesis of the patient's problem.

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What does the 'A' and 'G' stand for in the AGOLDMED model of imaging referral?

Age and Gender.

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What does the 'O', 'L', and 'D' stand for in the AGOLDMED model?

Onset, Location, and Duration of symptoms.

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What does the 'M', 'E', and 'D' stand for in the AGOLDMED model?

Mechanism of injury, Exam findings, and Diagnosis (hypothetical).

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Which skill involves using evidence-based imaging guidelines according to Mabry et al. (2022)?

Skill 22.

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Which skill involves educating patients on imaging findings in the professional scope of practice?

Skill 77.

50
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What is Skill 9 in the physical therapist's scope regarding imaging?

Refer the patient if imaging findings are outside the physical therapist's scope.