Protozoans and Apicomplexans

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Last updated 7:43 AM on 5/27/26
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59 Terms

1
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What are protozoans?

Unicellular organisms that are more advanced than bacteria.

2
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What body fluids can protozoans infect?

Blood, muscle, lymph, CNS, skin, and mucosa.

3
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What are the four major phyla of protozoans?

Flagellates, Amoeba, Ciliates, and Apicomplexans.

4
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What is an oocyst?

A cyst that can survive outside of a host for long periods.

5
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What is a trophozoite?

The motile and active feeding stage of protozoans.

6
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What is a sporozoite?

The motile and infectious form of a sporulated cell that infects a new host.

7
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What is a merozoite?

A non-motile cell form of reproduction of sporozoites within a host cell.

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What is a bradyzoite?

A slow-growing feeding stage of protozoans.

9
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What is a tachyzoite?

A fast reproducing stage of protozoans.

10
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What are flagellates?

Protozoans with long whip-like tails, may have more than one tail.

11
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What are amoebae characterized by?

Pseudopodia, or 'false feet', used for movement.

12
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What are ciliates?

Protozoans that use fine hairs (cilia) for swimming movement.

13
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What are apicomplexans?

The most diverse and complicated protozoans, parasites of almost every animal phylum.

14
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What is the primary diagnostic method for detecting trophozoites?

Direct smear of fresh, unrefrigerated feces.

15
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What is the fecal flotation method used for?

Detection of cysts in solid or semisolid stools.

16
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What disease is caused by Giardia spp.?

Giardiasis or Giardiosis.

17
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What is the route of infection for Giardia spp.?

Fecal-oral transmission through ingestion of cysts.

18
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What are the clinical signs of giardiasis?

Weight loss and chronic diarrhea or steatorrhea.

19
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What is the treatment for giardiasis?

Fenbendazole and Metronidazole.

20
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What disease is caused by Entamoeba histolytica?

Amoebic dysentery.

21
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What are the clinical signs of infection with Entamoeba histolytica?

Acute or chronic diarrhea and ulceration within the intestine.

22
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What is the primary diagnostic method for Entamoeba histolytica?

Fecal float and direct smear for trophozoites.

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What is the treatment for Entamoeba histolytica?

Metronidazole.

24
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What disease is caused by Cystoisospora spp.?

Coccidiosis.

25
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What are the clinical signs of coccidiosis?

Hemorrhagic diarrhea, weight loss, and dehydration.

26
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What is the treatment for Cystoisospora spp. infection?

Sulfadimethoxine.

27
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What is the zoonotic potential of Cystoisospora spp.?

No zoonotic potential.

28
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What is the prepatent period for Cystoisospora spp.?

7 to 14 days.

29
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What are the characteristics of unsporulated oocysts of Cystoisospora spp.?

Round, non-motile, with a single nucleus.

30
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What are the characteristics of sporulated oocysts of Cystoisospora spp.?

Egg-shaped with 2 sporocysts, infective stage.

31
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What is the primary method for diagnosing Cystoisospora spp.?

Fecal testing and visualization of oocysts.

32
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What is the drug of choice for treating Cystoisospora spp. infections?

Sulfadimethoxine (Albon).

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What is the initial dose of Sulfadimethoxine for treating Cystoisospora spp.?

25 mg/lb (55 mg/kg).

34
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How long should treatment with Sulfadimethoxine last?

10 to 14 days.

35
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What is a common off-label drug used for Cystoisospora spp.?

Ponazuril (Marquis).

36
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What are the recommended fecal exam frequencies for pets in the first year?

2 to 4 times.

37
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What is the route of infection for Toxoplasma gondii?

Ingestion of oocysts through food, water, or grooming.

38
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What clinical signs are associated with Toxoplasma gondii infections?

Usually asymptomatic, but diarrhea is a major symptom.

39
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What is the unique fact about oocyst shedding in cats infected with Toxoplasma gondii?

Cats shed oocysts for only up to 2 weeks.

40
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What are the characteristics of unsporulated oocysts?

Round, non-motile, and have a single nucleus.

41
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What are the characteristics of sporulated oocysts?

Infective stage, round or egg-shaped with 2 sporocysts.

42
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What is the primary disease caused by Cryptosporidium spp.?

Cryptosporidiosis.

43
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What is the route of infection for Cryptosporidium spp.?

Fecal-oral route.

44
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What are common clinical signs of Cryptosporidiosis?

Profuse, watery diarrhea.

45
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What is the drug of choice for treating Cryptosporidium spp. infections?

Azithromycin.

46
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What is the prepatent period for Cryptosporidium spp.?

Oocysts are shed in feces 3 to 6 days after infection.

47
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What is the disease associated with Leishmania infantum?

Viscerocutaneous/Canine leishmaniosis.

48
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What is the route of infection for Leishmania infantum?

Bite of infective sand flies (Phlebotomus spp.).

49
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What are common clinical signs of Leishmania infantum infections?

Skin lesions, ocular abnormalities, weight loss, and lethargy.

50
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What is the primary host for Babesia canis?

Canines.

51
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What is the route of infection for Babesia canis?

Bite of infective Rhipicephalus sanguineous (Brown dog tick).

52
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What are common clinical signs of Babesiosis?

Lethargy, pale mucous membranes, splenomegaly, and icterus.

53
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What is the treatment for Babesia canis?

Clindamycin.

54
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What is the disease caused by Cytauxzoon felis?

Feline cytauxzoonosis.

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What is the route of infection for Cytauxzoon felis?

Bite from infected Amblyomma americanum (Lone Star Tick).

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What are the clinical signs of Cytauxzoon felis infections?

Anemia, icterus, dehydration, fever, and death.

57
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What is the treatment for Hepatozoon americanum?

Trimethoprim-sulfadiazine, clindamycin, and pyrimethamine.

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What is the route of infection for Hepatozoon canis?

Ingestion of infective Rhipicephalus sanguineous (Brown dog tick).

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What are the clinical signs of Hepatozoon canis infections?

Nonspecific symptoms including fever, lethargy, and depression.