Equine Disease Midterm (new info)

Horses are ____ fermenters and rely on bacteria in the large intestine to digests cellulose.

hind gut fermenters

List 4 risk factors associated with colic in horses when it comes to their management and environment.

• Rapid change in feed, particularly concerning hay

• Abrupt reduction in activity

• Recent change in weather, such as from hot to cold

• Stabling, horses in stables are more likely to obtain colic than those in a pasture.

What type of colic might a horse that has been on alfalfa in the Western U.S. experience?

Enterolith

List 4 clinical signs of colic in horses.

• Reduced appetite

• Reduction in defecation

• Lying down more than normal

• Pawing

What percentage of horses with colic respond to basic field treatment?

90%

What side of the neck should you palpate to check to ensure a nasogastric tube has been placed in the esophagus instead of the trachea?

left side of the neck

What is an abdominocentesis and what color should the fluid be when collected?

An abdominocentesis is when we use a needle to puncture the abdominal cavity to collect peritoneal fluid for analysis. Normal peritoneal fluid should be yellow and clear.

Endoscopy helps evaluate the equine stomach for ____ and other abnormalities.

gastric ulcers

What is the standard length of an adoscope to reach the stomach of a horse?

3 meters

What are the advantages of performing an exploratory celiotomy on a horse with colic?

• We get a definitive diagnosis

• Opportunity to correct many specific problems

• Often only option to save a horse’s life

• If the horse has a poor prognosis, it ends its suffering

How often should adult horses have their teeth floated, as long as they are not dealing with significant abnormalities, to prevent colic?

once a year

To prevent colic, a feed change should be implemented over a ____ day period.

7-10

To prevent colic, feed changes should be made slowly, this includes changes in ___ as well.

hay

What are the 2 different types of stomach linings in horses?

• Glandular epithelium

• Squamous epithelium

____% of colic cases respond to basic field treatment

90%

____% of colic cases need intensive medical care or abdominal surgery

10

When suspecting colic, what is the next step after performing a basic physical exam?

passing a nasogastric tube

When passing a nasogastric tube, what are some ways you can know you are in the esophagus?

• Feel of collapsed space

• Negative pressure on aspiration

• Palpate on the left side of the neck

• Smell stomach gas coming from the tube

• successfully siphon stomach contents

WHen refluxing the stomch, how many liters of water should you put in the stomach?

2 liters

Rectal exams allow for assessment of about ___ of the abdomen.

1/3

What are some structures you can palpate with a rectal exam?

• spleen

• caudal pole of left kidney

• aorta

• cecum

• pelvic flexure of large colon

• urinary bladder

• small colon

• small intestines

• ovaries, cervix, uterus

What is the treatment for simple colic?

• pain reliever

• laxatives via NG tube

How much net flux of stomach contents should you have with simple colic?

less than 1-2 liters

How much net reflux of stomach contents should you have with complicated colic?

greater than 2 liters

What are the two basic abdominocentesis techniques?

• needle method using an 18G needle

• teat cannula method

When we float a horses teeth, how much do we take off?

3-5 mm

How many teeth does an adult horse have?

44

Name the most common location for tumors in the urogenital system.

the externial genitalia

____ - an infection of the kidneys

pyelonephritis

_____ - an infection of the urinary bladder

cystitis

Urine is formed in the ____ and stored in the ____

Urine is formed in the kidneys and stored in the bladder.

Urinary stones in horses are usually com posed of what?

calcium carbonate

The urine of horses normally contains what?

calcium crystals

What do we call the conglomeration of smegma that commonly forms in the urethral fossa of stallions and geldings?

beans

Name the most common types of urogenital tumors.

• squamous cell carcinome

• melanoma

Female horses are diagnosed with bladder stones less frequently than male horses. Why?

Mares have much shorter urethras when compared to males. This means that mares are able to expand their urethra more, and the tones most likely pass when they are small.

If a horse is experiencing azotemia, what levels are going to high on blood tests?

• BUN will be greater than 22mg/dl

• Creatinine will be greater than 2.0mg/dl

Discuss causes of pre-renal azotemia, renal azotemia, and post-renal azotemia.

• Pre-renal azotemia is caused by dehydration

• Renal azotemia is caused by injury to the kidneys

• Post-renal azotemia is caused by obstruction

In horses, what two methods do we use for collecting urine?

Urinary catheterization and free catch

You collect urine from a horse. How long can the urine be kept outside a refrigerator before it is analyzed?

A fresh sample needs to be processed within 30 minutes of collection, and a refrigerated sample can be preserved for a few hours.

What are the risks associated with kidney biopsies?

Hemorrhage and infection

What is the total range of a horse’s vision?

350º

When a horse is looking at an object in the distance it ____ its head and when it is looking at an object that is close up it ____ its head.

When a horse is looking at an object in the distance it raises its head and when it is looking at an object that is close up it lowers its head.

Describe the difference between rods and cones when it comes to light and color.

Rods are nerve cells that sense light, and cones are nerve cells that sense color.

What are the 2 types of cones that horses have?

Horses only have two cones, blue and green

A photon of light enters the front of a horse’s eye and travels to the back of the eye. List the correct order of structures in the eye from front to back (as the photon of light travels through it).

Light enters the cornea of the eye and then passes through the aqueous humor in the anterior chamber. The iris contracts to allow more light in, and this light travels through the lens. Light then passes through the vitreous humor in the posterior chamber, and light then hits the retina on the back of the eye.

What is conjunctivitis?

Conjunctivitis is inflammation of the conjunctiva, the pink tissue that covers part of the eyeball and lines the inside of the eyelids.

Discuss Equine Recurrent Uveitis and the characteristic signs associated with it.

Equine Recurrent Uveitis is also known as “moon blindness” and “periodic ophthalmia.” It is the repeated inflammation of the internal structures of the eye. Clinical signs associated with this disorder include pain, swelling, blepharospasm, and epiphora.

What is a palpebral response?

The palpebral response is an animal’s ability to blink. It is performed by lightly tapping the medial canthus of the eye. The horses should blink and pull away.

What are the 2 nerve blocks used to evaluate the equine eye and what do they block when used?

• The auriculopalpebral block works by blocking the auriculopalpebral nerve, and motor function is disrupted.

• The supraorbital blocks work by blocking sensation to the eye and structures around it.

Horses are ____ breeders, and estrus occurs with lengthening ____, and mares are considered seasonally _____.

Horses are long day breeders, and estrus occurs with lengthening photoperiod, and mares are considered seasonally polyestrous.

What is the universal birth date for horses?

Janurary 1st

Discuss the function of Progesterone when it comes to pregnancy.

Progesterone closes the cervix and inhibits the secretion of follicle-stimulating hormone and luteinizing hormone to help maintain pregnancy.

Fertility is highest within _____ of ovulation and it is best if sperm is present within the oviduct _____ ovulation occurs.

Fertility is highest within 12 hours of ovulation and it is best if sperm is present within the oviduct before ovulation occurs.

What are the things that can influence the semen characteristics of a stallion?

• Degree of stimulation

• Frequency of ejaculation

• Age

• Testicular size

• Method of semen collection

Which breeding technique is used most of the time in breeding horses?

Artificial insemination

List 4 factors that can cause early embryonic loss in expecting mares.

Stress, illness, uterine infection, and hormonal abnormalities

Why do mares need vaccine boosters prior to foaling?

Because it increases the antibodies in the colostrum.

Which parasite can be passed through the mare’s milk to the foal? (Given common name and scientific name)

Threadworms / Strongyloides westeri

What is the average length of pregnancy for a mare?

338-343 days

What is the average length of gestation for a mare?

320-380 days

List the obvious signs that a mare is preparing to give birth.

Filling of the udder, distention of the teats, waxing of the teats, obvious dripping of milk, and an increase in milk calcium.

Discuss the normal presentation of a foal during the delivery process.

The foal should resemble a diving position, with its front feet first, with one slightly ahead of the other. Hooves down and followed by the nose, head, neck, shoulders, and hindquarters.

Discuss what “red bag delivery” means during the delivery process.

This happens when there is a premature rupture of the outer placental membrane at the beginning of stage 2. This means the foal is disconnected from the oxygen supply, and the thickened placenta must be cut and the foal removed immediately.

What is meconium?

This is the first bowel movement of the foal after being born

List and describe the 3 lactation problems a mare can experience.

• Mastitis, which is inflammation of the mammary glands

• Agalactia, which is the absence of milk during a time in which the mare should be producing milk.

• Galactorrhea, which is inappropriate lactation

What is colostrum, what does it contain, and when should foals receive it?

Colostrum is a mare’s first milk. It is extremely rich in antibodies and provides the foal with passive immunity. A foal must receive colostrum within the first 8-12 hours after birth to be able to absorb the antibodies.

What is the normal temperature for a foal?

99-102 F

What is the normal heart rate of a foal?

80-120 bpm

What is the normal respiratory rate for a foal?

30-40 rpm with slight abdominal effort

1. Hypoxic ischemia encephalopathy (dummy foal or equine maladjustment syndrome) is believed to result from _____ deprivation during the birthing process and can vary depending on age of the fetus, length of oxygen deprivation, and severity of hypoxia.

oxygen

What issues can Equine Viral Arteritis (EVA) cause when it comes to reproduction in horses?

This disease can cause abortion in pregnant mares, death in young foals, and breeder stallions can become permanent carriers.

T or F: Urinary system infections are more common in horses than in dogs and cats.

False, less common

T or F: Horse urinary stones will not be dissolved with diet changes.

True

____ - using endoscopy, the laser fiber is placed in caontact with the stone, and the laser energy breaks the stone into fragments.

lithotripsy

____ - accumulations of crystals and mucus in the bladder.

sabulous cystitis

____ and ____ particulary when given in the face of dehydration, are common causes of acute kidney failure.

NSAIDs and aminoglycoside antibiotics

Which kidney in the horse is heart shaped?

the right

BUN greater than ___mg/dl and of creatinine greater than ___mg/dl = azotemia

BUN greater than 22 mg/dl and creatinine greater than 2.0 mg/dl

If you perform a biochemistry using plasma, then what color top tube should you use?

green

If you perform a biochemistry using serum, then what color top tube should you use?

red

What medications are good for sedation before cleaning of the male genitals?

xylazine and acepromazine

The female genitals should be cleaned using what technique?

clean hand dirty hand

How often should a horse’s sheath be cleaned?

once a year

What size catheter should you use a a stallion'/gelding urinary catheterization?

60ml catheter tip syringe

Are free catch urine samples useful for culture?

no

T or F: The left kidney is further caudal than the right kidney.

True

What do we use to evaluate the bladder and urethra of horses?

endoscopy

What size endoscopes do we use on males vs females when assessing the bladder?

males = 2 meter

females = 1 meter

Where are a horse’s two blind spots?

In front and behind

A horse’s depth perception depends on their ____ vision

binocular

Another reason for raising and lowering their head to look at objects is to palce an object within a linear area of the retina called the _____. This area has a very high concentration of nerve ganglia, giving objects that appear in this area more clarity.

visual streak

T or F: Horses can see red

False

____ - partial thickness injuries, tend to be superficial and do not enter the anterior cahmber of the eye

corneal abrasions

____ - full thickness injuries, often allow iris to protrude, eyes can be saved with rapid intervention

corneal lacerations

_____ - vary is severity, can progress to eroding the entire cornea that would lead to corneal rupture.

corneal ulcers

_____ - inflammatino fo the cornea, often caused by infectious component.

keratitis

T or F: It is good practice to cut off an eye lid laceration.

False

What are the three main uveal tract parts?

• the choroid

• the ciliary body

• the iris

T or F: Horses can have uveitis as a one-time occurrence but to be called ERU, they must have multiple episodes.

True