Chapter 29 Introduction to the clinical Lab

1 Which of the following assists the provider in making a diagnosis?
A. Health history
B. Physical examination
C. Laboratory tests
D. Diagnostic procedures
E. All of these

Correct Answer: E — All of these
Explanation: All listed components contribute to making an accurate diagnosis by providing complete patient information.

2 Which of the following occurs when the body is in homeostasis?
A. Symptoms of a pathological condition
B. An imbalance in the body
C. Body systems are functioning normally
D. Abnormal laboratory test results

Correct Answer: C — Body systems are functioning normally
Explanation: Homeostasis means the body is balanced and functioning properly.

3 All of the following are advantages of a POL except
A. Test results are available while the patient is still at the office
B. The provider may be able to diagnose a patient’s condition immediately
C. The provider can initiate treatment before the patient leaves the office
D. Untrained personnel can perform the laboratory tests

Correct Answer: D — Untrained personnel can perform the laboratory tests
Explanation: This is NOT an advantage—lab tests must be performed by trained personnel.

4 Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of CLIA-waived tests?
A. They are easy to perform
B. They must be performed in a POL
C. They are exempt from most of the CLIA regulations
D. There is a low risk of erroneous test results

Correct Answer: B — They must be performed in a POL
Explanation: CLIA-waived tests can be performed in multiple settings, not just POLs.

5 What temperature is usually required for storing testing materials and performing laboratory tests in a POL?
A. Body temperature
B. Room temperature
C. A temperature below 40° F
D. A temperature above 212° F

Correct Answer: B — Room temperature
Explanation: Most lab materials are stored and used at room temperature unless specified otherwise.

6 All of the following are guidelines for storing specimens and testing components in a laboratory refrigerator except
A. Attach a biohazard warning label to the refrigerator
B. Maintain the refrigerator temperature between 36° F and 46° F
C. Check the temperature of the refrigerator once each week
D. Do not store food and beverages in the refrigerator

Correct Answer: C — Check the temperature of the refrigerator once each week
Explanation: Temperature should be checked more frequently (typically daily), not just weekly.

7 Which of the following are guidelines for an emergency eyewash station?
A. Located within a 10-second walking distance
B. Tepid water should be used
C. Flush eyes for a full 15 minutes
D. Weekly inspection and activation
E. All of these

Correct Answer: E — All of these
Explanation: All listed items are standard safety guidelines for eyewash stations.

8 Which of the following is included in the test menu of a laboratory directory?
A. Patient preparation requirements
B. Specimen collection requirements
C. Specimen processing requirements
D. Preparation and storage for transport
E. All of these

Correct Answer: E — All of these
Explanation: A lab directory includes all steps related to testing and specimen handling.

9 What is the term for a small sample taken from the body to represent the nature of the whole?
A. Analyte
B. Biopsy
C. Specimen
D. Discharge

Correct Answer: C — Specimen
Explanation: A specimen is any sample collected for testing to represent the whole.

10 The study of blood and the blood-forming tissues is known as
A. Hematology
B. Immunology and blood banking
C. Clinical chemistry
D. Microbiology
E. Histology

Correct Answer: A — Hematology
Explanation: Hematology focuses specifically on blood and blood-forming tissues.

11 Laboratory analysis that deals with the detection of abnormal cells is known as
A. Hematology
B. Immunology and blood banking
C. Clinical chemistry
D. Cytology
E. Histology

Correct Answer: D — Cytology
Explanation: Cytology studies cells, especially for abnormalities like cancer.

12 Laboratory analysis to determine the amount of chemical substances present in body fluids, excreta, and tissues is known as
A. Hematology
B. Immunology and blood banking
C. Clinical chemistry
D. Histology

Correct Answer: C — Clinical chemistry
Explanation: Clinical chemistry measures chemical components in body samples.

13 What is the term for a tentative diagnosis of a patient’s condition obtained through evaluation of health history and physical examination, without lab tests?
A. Final diagnosis
B. Prognosis
C. Clinical diagnosis
D. Findings

Correct Answer: C — Clinical diagnosis
Explanation: A clinical diagnosis is made based on observation and exam before lab confirmation.

What is the term for a certain established and acceptable range within which laboratory test results of a healthy individual are expected to fall?
A. Normal value
B. Laboratory result
C. Critical value
D. Reference range

Correct Answer: D — Reference range
Explanation: A reference range defines expected normal values for healthy individuals.

15 What is the term for a combination of laboratory tests determined to be most sensitive and specific for identifying a disease or evaluating an organ system?
A. Test system
B. Test kit
C. Panel
D. Diagnostic procedures

Correct Answer: C — Panel
Explanation: A panel is a group of related tests used together for better accuracy.

16 All of the following are included in a lipid panel except
A. Glucose
B. Total cholesterol
C. HDL cholesterol
D. Triglycerides

Correct Answer: A — Glucose
Explanation: Glucose is not part of a lipid panel; it measures blood sugar, not fats.

17 The purpose of a hepatic profile is to
A. Detect kidney problems
B. Detect viral hepatitis
C. Detect pathological conditions affecting the liver
D. Determine the risk of coronary artery disease

Correct Answer: C — Detect pathological conditions affecting the liver
Explanation: A hepatic profile evaluates liver function and damage.

18 Which of the following is an example of using a laboratory test to regulate treatment?
A. A diabetic patient tests blood before administering insulin
B. A patient undergoes a cholesterol screening
C. A CBC is performed to determine anemia
D. A gonorrhea test is performed as required by law

Correct Answer: A — A diabetic patient tests blood before administering insulin
Explanation: This is monitoring to adjust treatment in real time.

19 What is the purpose of performing a screening test?
A. Detect the presence of an acute infection
B. Assist in clinical diagnosis
C. Assist in early detection of disease
D. Comply with state law

Correct Answer: C — Assist in early detection of disease
Explanation: Screening tests are used to catch diseases early before symptoms appear.

20 Which of the following is an example of using a laboratory test to assist in the differential diagnosis of a patient’s condition?
A. Running a profile on a patient who complains of vague symptoms
B. Performing a strep test to determine if a patient has strep throat or pharyngitis
C. Performing an OGTT on a patient who exhibits symptoms of diabetes
D. Performing a CBC on a patient as part of a general physical examination

Correct Answer: B — Performing a strep test to determine if a patient has strep throat or pharyngitis
Explanation: Differential diagnosis helps distinguish between similar conditions.

21 Which of the following is NOT included on a laboratory request form?
A. Name and address of the laboratory performing the test
B. Patient’s date of birth and gender
C. Date and time of collection of the specimen
D. Laboratory test results

Correct Answer: D — Laboratory test results
Explanation: Results come after testing, not on the request form.

22 All of the following are reasons for indicating the clinical diagnosis on the laboratory request form except
A. To alert laboratory personnel to the presence of a dangerous pathogen
B. To inform laboratory personnel of the source of the specimen
C. For third-party billing by the laboratory
D. To correlate laboratory data with the needs of the provider

Correct Answer: B — To inform laboratory personnel of the source of the specimen
Explanation: Specimen source is separate from clinical diagnosis.

23 What is the purpose of a laboratory report?
A. To indicate the patient diagnosis
B. To relay the results of laboratory tests to the provider
C. To order laboratory tests on a patient
D. To indicate the patient prognosis

Correct Answer: B — To relay the results of laboratory tests to the provider
Explanation: The report communicates test findings to the provider.

24 What is the term for a test result that is dangerously abnormal and must be reported immediately to the ordering provider?
A. Critical value
B. STAT result
C. Normal value
D. Abnormal result

Correct Answer: A — Critical value
Explanation: Critical values require immediate reporting due to patient risk.

25 Which of the following is NOT used to transmit laboratory reports from an outside laboratory to the medical office?
A. Electronic transmission
B. Faxing
C. Hand delivery by a patient
D. Hand delivery by a laboratory courier

Correct Answer: C — Hand delivery by a patient
Explanation: Patients are not standard or reliable methods for transmitting official lab reports.

26 All of the following are characteristics of laboratory reports that are electronically transmitted to the medical office except
A. Reports can be displayed in chronological order
B. Current and previous results can be plotted graphically
C. Provider can sign with an electronic signature
D. The report must be filed in the patient’s EHR by the medical assistant

Correct Answer: D — The report must be filed in the patient’s EHR by the medical assistant
Explanation: Electronic reports are typically auto-integrated into the EHR.

27 Which of the following is an example of a unique identifier(s)?
A. Date and time of specimen collection
B. Patient’s full name and date of birth
C. Initials of the individual collecting the specimen
D. Source of the specimen

Correct Answer: B — Patient’s full name and date of birth
Explanation: Unique identifiers are used to correctly identify the patient.

28 What is the purpose of patient preparation for a laboratory test?
A. To reduce patient discomfort during specimen collection
B. To obtain a high-quality specimen suitable for testing
C. To ensure that the test results fall within the reference range
D. To ensure that the patient receives the proper treatment

Correct Answer: B — To obtain a high-quality specimen suitable for testing
Explanation: Proper prep ensures the specimen is accurate and usable.

29 A patient who is fasting (in preparation for a laboratory test) can consume
A. Baked chicken
B. Water
C. Diet soda
D. Orange juice
E. None of these

Correct Answer: B — Water
Explanation: Fasting allows water only; other options can affect results.

30 Which of the following laboratory tests does NOT require fasting?
A. OGTT
B. Comprehensive metabolic profile
C. Complete blood count
D. FBG

Correct Answer: C — Complete blood count
Explanation: CBC does not require fasting, unlike glucose-related tests.

31 Antibiotics taken by the patient prior to a strep test may result in
A. A false-negative test result
B. Overgrowth of the specimen with extraneous microorganisms
C. A false-positive test result
D. A positive result

Correct Answer: A — A false-negative test result
Explanation: Antibiotics can suppress bacteria, making the test appear negative.

32 Which of the following is a cause for rejection of a specimen by an outside laboratory?
A. No label on the specimen container
B. Specimen received without a laboratory request
C. Insufficient amount of specimen
D. Improper storage of the specimen
E. All of these

Correct Answer: E — All of these
Explanation: Any of these issues can lead to specimen rejection.

33 If a laboratory report is returned to the medical office marked QNS, it means that
A. An insufficient amount of the specimen was submitted
B. The patient did not prepare properly
C. The wrong type of specimen was submitted
D. A contaminated specimen was submitted

Correct Answer: A — An insufficient amount of the specimen was submitted
Explanation: QNS = “Quantity Not Sufficient.”

34 The purpose of a biohazard specimen bag include all of the following except
A. To prevent contamination of the specimen
B. To protect health care workers from an exposure incident
C. To maintain the specimen at room temperature
D. To protect laboratory couriers from an exposure incident

Correct Answer: C — To maintain the specimen at room temperature
Explanation: Biohazard bags are for protection, not temperature control.

35 Why is it important to collect and handle a specimen properly for transport to an outside laboratory?
A. To reduce the time needed for testing
B. To provide a biologically representative sample
C. To ensure valid results from quality control methods
D. To prevent abnormal test results

Correct Answer: B — To provide a biologically representative sample
Explanation: Proper handling ensures the specimen accurately reflects the patient’s condition.

37 The purpose of the Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendment (CLIA) is to
A. Improve the quality of laboratory testing in the United States
B. Prevent employee exposure to bloodborne pathogens
C. Ensure safety in the laboratory
D. Prevent errors in technique

Correct Answer: A — Improve the quality of laboratory testing in the United States
Explanation: CLIA focuses on improving lab testing accuracy and reliability.

38 If a laboratory is performing nonwaived tests, CLIA requires
A. Proficiency testing program
B. Procedures for proper test performance
C. Procedures for accurate results
D. Unannounced inspections every two years
E. All of these

Correct Answer: E — All of these
Explanation: All are requirements for nonwaived testing under CLIA.

39 What is the term for a substance that is being identified or measured in a laboratory test?
A. Standard
B. Analyte
C. Chemical
D. Control

Correct Answer: B — Analyte
Explanation: The analyte is the substance being measured.

40 All of the following are examples of CLIA-waived tests except
A. Fecal occult blood test
B. Rapid COVID test
C. Urinalysis using a reagent strip
D. Microscopic analysis of urine sediment

Correct Answer: D — Microscopic analysis of urine sediment
Explanation: This is more complex and not CLIA-waived.

41 Which of the following is included in a package insert of a test kit?
A. Intended use
B. Specimen collection and handling
C. Test procedure
D. Interpretation and reading results
E. All of these

Correct Answer: E — All of these
Explanation: Package inserts include all instructions and guidelines for the test.

42 The purpose of quality control is to
A. Prevent accidents
B. Protect from bloodborne pathogens
C. Ensure reliable and valid results
D. Ensure results fall within normal range
E. All of these

Correct Answer: C — Ensure reliable and valid results
Explanation: QC ensures test accuracy and consistency.

43 Which of the following is a storage and stability requirement for test components?
A. Store according to package insert
B. Allow refrigerated components to reach room temperature
C. Check expiration dates
D. Do not transfer components between kits
E. All of these

Correct Answer: E — All of these
Explanation: All are essential for maintaining test accuracy.

44 What is the purpose of calibrating an automated analyzer?
A. Repair malfunction
B. Determine if accurate results are provided
C. Ensure components are not expired
D. Ensure proper technique

Correct Answer: B — Determine if accurate results are provided
Explanation: Calibration ensures the analyzer is producing correct results.

45 What is the name for a control that is built into the test system?
A. External control
B. Standard
C. Proficiency control
D. Internal control

Correct Answer: D — Internal control
Explanation: Internal controls are built into the test system itself.

46 What type of results are produced by a high-level external control?
A. Results that fall below the reference range
B. Invalid results
C. Results that fall above the reference range
D. Positive results

Correct Answer: C — Results that fall above the reference range
Explanation: High-level controls are designed to produce values above the normal range.

47 Which of the following may cause an external control to fail to produce expected results?
A. Outdated test reagents
B. Not performing the control procedure correctly
C. Improper storage of test components
D. Improper environmental testing conditions
E. All of these

Correct Answer: E — All of these
Explanation: Any of these factors can affect control accuracy.

48 What should be done if a control does not perform as expected?
A. Do not perform patient testing until the problem is resolved
B. Perform patient testing as usual
C. Perform calibration procedures
D. Document the results as invalid

Correct Answer: A — Do not perform patient testing until the problem is resolved
Explanation: Testing must stop until the issue is fixed to avoid inaccurate results.

49 What is the term for a test that indicates the exact amount of an analyte present in a specimen?
A. Quantitative test
B. Screening test
C. Diagnostic test
D. Qualitative test

Correct Answer: A — Quantitative test
Explanation: Quantitative tests measure exact amounts.

50 Which of the following is a violation of laboratory safety precautions?
A. Immediately cleaning a spilled specimen
B. Talking in the laboratory
C. Opening a centrifuge before it comes to a complete stop
D. Disposing of medical waste in biohazard containers

Correct Answer: C — Opening a centrifuge before it comes to a complete stop
Explanation: This is unsafe and can cause injury or contamination.